Plus One Public Exam March 2019 One Mark Question Paper

11th Standard

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Economics

Time : 00:45:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 100
    100 x 1 = 100
  1. Economics is a science" the basis of this statement is

    (a)

    Relation between cause and effect

    (b)

    Use of dedective method and inductive method for the formations of laws

    (c)

    Experiments

    (d)

    All of the above

  2. A market is

    (a)

    Only a place to buy things

    (b)

    Only a place to sell things

    (c)

    Only a place where prices adjust

    (d)

    A system where persons buy and sell goods directly or indirectly

  3. Which one of the following is not a point in the Welfare Definition of Economics?

    (a)

    Study of ordinary man

    (b)

    Economics does not focus on wealth alone

    (c)

    Economics is the study of material welfare

    (d)

    Economics deals with unlimited wants and limited means

  4. What is the name for money Income.

    (a)

    Nominal Income

    (b)

    Real Income

    (c)

    Both

    (d)

    None

  5. A good consumed by a single person.

    (a)

    Free Goods

    (b)

    Public good

    (c)

    Private good

    (d)

    None

  6. Which of the following is covered in micro economics?

    (a)

    Consumer behaviour

    (b)

    External value of money

    (c)

    Employment and economic growth

    (d)

    National income

  7. The movement on or along the given demand curve is known as______

    (a)

    extension and contraction of demand

    (b)

    shifts in the demand

    (c)

    increase & decrease in demand

    (d)

    all the above

  8. The locus of the points which gives same level of satisfaction is associated with

    (a)

    Indifference Curves

    (b)

    Cardinal Analysis

    (c)

    Law of Demand

    (d)

    Law of Supply

  9. Ordinal Utility can be measured by

    (a)

    Ranking

    (b)

    Numbering

    (c)

    Wording

    (d)

    None of these

  10. ____________ means using up goods & services.

    (a)

    Consumption

    (b)

    Production

    (c)

    Selling

    (d)

    Buying

  11. The shape of unitary elastic demand (Ep = 1) curve is a ________.

    (a)

    Vertical line

    (b)

    Horizontal straight line

    (c)

    Rectangular hvberbola

    (d)

    Steeply sloping

  12. The degree of responsiveness of a change in demand for a product due to the change in the income is known as __________

    (a)

    Price elasticity of demand

    (b)

    Income elasticity of demand

    (c)

    Cross elasticity of demand.

    (d)

    Advertising elasticity of demand

  13. In case of expansion of demand, the quantity demanded_____________.

    (a)

    increases

    (b)

    decreases

    (c)

    becomes zero

    (d)

    becomes constant

  14. Indifference curves never intersect each other due to_______________.

    (a)

    different levels of satisfaction

    (b)

    same levels of satisfaction

    (c)

    convex to the origin

    (d)

    concave to the origin

  15. Who said, that one of the key of an entrepreneur is "uncertainty-bearing"

    (a)

    J.B. Clark

    (b)

    Schumpeter

    (c)

    Knight

    (d)

    Adam Smith

  16. Cobb - Douglas production function assumes.

    (a)

    Increasing returns to scale

    (b)

    Diminishing returns to scale

    (c)

    Constant returns to scale

    (d)

    All of the above

  17. Product obtained from additional factors of production is termed as

    (a)

    Marginal product

    (b)

    Total product

    (c)

    Average product

    (d)

    Annual product

  18. In the first stage of law of variable proportions, total product increases at an _______________

    (a)

    Decreasing rate

    (b)

    Increasing rate

    (c)

    Constant rate

    (d)

    Both (a) and (b)

  19. _____________ creates utility.

    (a)

    Consumption

    (b)

    Production

    (c)

    Distribution

    (d)

    Exchange

  20. The two words 'ISO' and 'quant' are derived from ____________ language.

    (a)

    Latin

    (b)

    French

    (c)

    Greek

    (d)

    All the above

  21. ___________is the addition made to total product by an additional unit of input of the variable factors.

    (a)

    Total product

    (b)

    Average product

    (c)

    Marginal product

    (d)

    All of these

  22. The costs of self-owned resources are termed as ____ cost.

    (a)

    real

    (b)

    explicit

    (c)

    money

    (d)

    impilicit

  23. The cost that remains constant at all levels of output is _____ cost.

    (a)

    fixed

    (b)

    variable

    (c)

    real

    (d)

    social

  24. The cost incurred by producing one more unit of _____ output is cost.

    (a)

    variable

    (b)

    fixed

    (c)

    marginal

    (d)

    total

  25. When price remains constant. AR will be _____ MR.

    (a)

    equal to

    (b)

    greater than

    (c)

    less than

    (d)

    not related to

  26. The objective of a firm is to earn ___________ .

    (a)

    profit

    (b)

    loss

    (c)

    factors of production

    (d)

    market

  27. A cost incurred in the past and cannot be recovered in future.

    (a)

    Money cost

    (b)

    Social cost

    (c)

    Fixed cost

    (d)

    Sunk cost

  28. Identify the formula of estimating total cost.

    (a)

    TC/Q

    (b)

    TFC + TVC

    (c)

    TVC/Q

    (d)

    AFC/Q

  29. All expenses that are directly associated with business activities but not with asset creation are known as______________

    (a)

    Floating cost

    (b)

    Fixed cost

    (c)

    Variable cost

    (d)

    Average cost

  30. There is no excess capacity under _________

    (a)

    Monopoly

    (b)

    Monopolistic competition

    (c)

    Oligopoly

    (d)

    Perfect competition

  31. Monopolistic competition is a form of __________

    (a)

    Oligopoly

    (b)

    Duopoly

    (c)

    Imperfect competition

    (d)

    Monopoly

  32. Price leadership is the attribute of ________

    (a)

    Perfect competition

    (b)

    Monopoly

    (c)

    Oligopoly

    (d)

    Monopolistic competition

  33. In which market form does, an absence of competition prevail?

    (a)

    Perfect competition

    (b)

    Monopoly

    (c)

    Duopoly

    (d)

    Oligopoly

  34. ____________ lead to high cost to consumer under monopolistic competition.

    (a)

    Price

    (b)

    Product

    (c)

    Advertisement

    (d)

    Market-profit

  35. The market structure in which there is only one buyer of a good is called_____________.

    (a)

    Monopoly

    (b)

    Duopoly

    (c)

    Oligopoly

    (d)

    Monopsony

  36. The reward for labour is _________.

    (a)

    Rent

    (b)

    Wage

    (c)

    Profit

    (d)

    Interest

  37. Keynesian Theory of interest is popularly known as ________.

    (a)

    Abstinence Theory

    (b)

    Liquidity Preference Theory

    (c)

    Loanable Funds Theory

    (d)

    Agio Theory

  38. According to the Loanable Funds Theory, supply of loanable funds is equal to _________.

    (a)

    S + BC + DH + DI

    (b)

    I + DS + DH + BM

    (c)

    S + DS + BM + DI

    (d)

    S + BM + DH + DS

  39. "Wages as a sum of money are paid under contract by an employer to a worker for services rendered" - Who said this?

    (a)

    Benham

    (b)

    Marshall

    (c)

    Walker

    (d)

    J.S. Mill

  40. Who is the author of the rent theory of profit?

    (a)

    Ricardo

    (b)

    Profit - Walker

    (c)

    Howlay

    (d)

    Walker

  41. Organization is done by.

    (a)

    J.M.Keynes

    (b)

    Entrepreneur

    (c)

    Profit

    (d)

    Labour

  42. ___________side of factor is operating the marginal productivity theory.

    (a)

    Supply

    (b)

    Demand

    (c)

    Production

    (d)

    Investment

  43. Mixed economy means ______

    (a)

    Private sectors and banks

    (b)

    Co-existence of Public and Private sectors

    (c)

    Public sectors and banks

    (d)

    Public sectors only

  44. The weakness of Indian Economy is _____

    (a)

    Economic disparities

    (b)

    Mixed economy

    (c)

    Urbanisation

    (d)

    Adequate employment opportunities

  45. The number of deaths per thousand of population is called as ______

    (a)

    Crude Death Rate

    (b)

    Crude Birth Rate

    (c)

    Crude Infant Rate

    (d)

    Maternal Mortality Rate

  46. Who introduced the National Development Council in India?

    (a)

    Ambedkar

    (b)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

    (c)

    Radhakrishnan

    (d)

    V.K.R. V. Rao

  47. The major deposit of magnetite iron is available

    (a)

    Madhya Pradesh

    (b)

    Uttar Pradesh

    (c)

    Western coast of Karnataka

    (d)

    All the above

  48. ____________ is a key ingredient of the growth of any economy.

    (a)

    Urbanization

    (b)

    Rural development

    (c)

    Village cluster

    (d)

    All the above

  49. Much of the work done by Ambedkar during his stay abroad was in the field of _____________.

    (a)

    Law

    (b)

    Medicine

    (c)

    Political Science

    (d)

    Finance Economics

  50. In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting permission from __________

    (a)

    Akbar

    (b)

    Shajakan

    (c)

    Jahangir

    (d)

    Noorjakhan

  51. The power for governance of lndia was transferred from the East India Company (EIC) to the British crown in ___________.

    (a)

    1758

    (b)

    1858

    (c)

    1958

    (d)

    1658

  52. How many commercial banks were nationalised in 1969?

    (a)

    10

    (b)

    12

    (c)

    14

    (d)

    16

  53. Tenth five year plan period was ___________ .

    (a)

    1992 - 1997

    (b)

    2002 - 2007

    (c)

    2007 - 2012

    (d)

    1997 - 2002

  54. The main theme of the Twelth Five Year Plan

    (a)

    faster and more inclusive growth

    (b)

    growth with social Justice

    (c)

    socialistic pattern of society

    (d)

    faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth

  55. __ introduced 'permanent settlement Act'.

    (a)

     Lord Cornwallis

    (b)

    Lord William Bentinck

    (c)

    Jahangir

    (d)

    Visweswaraiah

  56. Public Sector banks are classified into __________ categories.

    (a)

    One

    (b)

    Two

    (c)

    Three

    (d)

    Four

  57. In Indian nearly _____ of population lived in rural areas.

    (a)

    60%

    (b)

    70%

    (c)

    80%

    (d)

    65%

  58. Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) was established_______

    (a)

    1950

    (b)

    1952

    (c)

    1954

    (d)

    1956

  59. The investment in equipment of Micro service Enterprises does not exceed__________.

    (a)

    20 Lakhs

    (b)

    10 Lakhs

    (c)

    5 Lakhs

    (d)

    25 Lakhs

  60. Expansion of FDI____

    (a)

    Foreign Private Investment

    (b)

    Foreign Portfolio

    (c)

    Foreign Direct Investment

    (d)

    Forex Private Investment

  61. Agricultural Produce Market Committee is a _____.

    (a)

    Advisory body

    (b)

    Statutory body

    (c)

    Both 'a' and 'b'

    (d)

    None of these

  62. Goods and Service Tax is_____

    (a)

    a multi point tax

    (b)

    having cascading effects

    (c)

    like Value Added Tax

    (d)

    a single point tax with the cascading effects

  63. The farmers have access to credit under Kisan credit card scheme through the following except___

    (a)

    Co operative banks

    (b)

    RRBs

    (c)

    Public sector banks

    (d)

    Private banks

  64. The first ever SEZ in India was set up at

    (a)

    Mumbai

    (b)

    Chennai

    (c)

    Kandla

    (d)

    Cochin

  65. Indian economy has achieved a remarkable rate of growth in ______.

    (a)

    Industry

    (b)

    Service

    (c)

    (a) only

    (d)

    Both

  66. At present, 100 percent FDI is allowed in______________.

    (a)

    Defence

    (b)

    Drugs and pharmaceuticals

    (c)

    Banks

    (d)

    Insurance

  67. Vishesh Krishi Upaj Yojana has been started for____________.

    (a)

    Agricultural export

    (b)

    Export of services

    (c)

    Export of handlooms and handicrafts

    (d)

    Export of gems and jewellery

  68. DFEC stands for_____________.

    (a)

    Direct Foreign Exchange Control

    (b)

    Direct Finance Exchange Control

    (c)

    Duty Free Export Credit

    (d)

    Duty Free Exchange Credit

  69. FPI stands for____________.

    (a)

    Foreign Private Investment

    (b)

    Foreign Public Investment

    (c)

    Foreign Portfolio Investment

    (d)

    None of these

  70. Which feature is identified with rural areas?

    (a)

    Low population density

    (b)

    High population density

    (c)

    Low natural resources

    (d)

    Low human resources

  71. What is the other name for concealed unemployment?

    (a)

    Open

    (b)

    Disguised

    (c)

    Seasonal

    (d)

    Rural

  72. Identify an example for rural industries?

    (a)

    Sugar factory

    (b)

    Mat making industry

    (c)

    Cement industry

    (d)

    Paper industry

  73. Identify the advantages of rural roads.

    (a)

    Rural marketing

    (b)

    Rural employment

    (c)

    Rural development

    (d)

    All the above

  74. "An Indian farmer is born in debt, lives in debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt" - who said this?

    (a)

    Adam Smith

    (b)

    Gandhi

    (c)

    Amartya sen

    (d)

    Sir Malcolm Darling

  75. Self - Help Groups (SHGs)

    (a)

    Informal voluntary association

    (b)

    Formal voluts

    (c)

    None of these

    (d)

    All the above

  76. "One side villages are empty, on the otherside towns are congested" ______who said this?

    (a)

    Nehru

    (b)

    Alfred Marshall

    (c)

    Amartyasen

    (d)

    Schumacher

  77. ____________should minimise the gap between rural and urban areas.

    (a)

    Rural Development

    (b)

    Agrian Development

    (c)

    Industrial Development

    (d)

    None

  78. _______________Prevalent in the society in crease unproductive expenditure.

    (a)

    Social Evils

    (b)

    Housing

    (c)

    Health

    (d)

    Industry

  79. Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful______________

    (a)

    Political power

    (b)

    recreation

    (c)

    employment

    (d)

    married life

  80. Frictional unemployment is a ....................... phenomenon.

    (a)

    permanent

    (b)

    temporary

    (c)

    long term

    (d)

    none of these

  81. In literacy rate, TN ranks

    (a)

    second

    (b)

    fourth

    (c)

    sixth

    (d)

    eighth

  82. Which district in TN has the highest sex ratio?

    (a)

    Nagapattinam

    (b)

    Nilgiris

    (c)

    Tiruchy

    (d)

    Thanjavur

  83. Which Union Territory has the highest sex ratio?

    (a)

    Chandigarh

    (b)

    Pondicherry

    (c)

    Lakshadeep

    (d)

    Andaman Nicobar

  84. In human development index, TN is ranked

    (a)

    second

    (b)

    fourth

    (c)

    sixth

    (d)

    seventh

  85. SPIC is located in

    (a)

    Chennai

    (b)

    Madurai

    (c)

    Tuticorin

    (d)

    Pudukkottai

  86. Tamil Nadu has __ major international airports.

    (a)

    One

    (b)

    Two

    (c)

    Three

    (d)

    Four

  87. ____ International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.

    (a)

    Chennai

    (b)

    Kolkata

    (c)

    Madurai

    (d)

    Coimbatore

  88. The total length of the mettur dam is ___ meters.

    (a)

    1600 m

    (b)

    1700 m

    (c)

    1800 m

    (d)

    1500 m

  89. The per capita GSDP of Tamil Nadu is_______________.

    (a)

    $2500

    (b)

    $2200

    (c)

    $2000

    (d)

    $1670

  90. Which state is third rank in Cement Production in India?

    (a)

    Karnataka

    (b)

    Kashmir

    (c)

    Tamil Nadu

    (d)

    Gujarat

  91. The first person used the mathematics in Economic is

    (a)

    Sir William Petty

    (b)

    Giovanni Ceva

    (c)

    Adam Smith

    (d)

    Irving Fisher

  92. A statement of equality between two quantities is called

    (a)

    Inequality

    (b)

    Equality

    (c)

    Equations

    (d)

    Functions

  93. Suppose D=50 - 5P when D is zero then

    (a)

    P is 10

    (b)

    P is 20

    (c)

    P is 5

    (d)

    P is -10

  94. Differentiation of constant term gives

    (a)

    one

    (b)

    zero

    (c)

    infinity

    (d)

    non-infinity

  95. If x + = 5 and x-y = 3 then value of x

    (a)

    4

    (b)

    3

    (c)

    16

    (d)

    8

  96. Functions, with more or equal to two independent variables, are called________ functions.

    (a)

    Simple Univariate functions

    (b)

    Multivariable functions

    (c)

    Both 'a' and 'b'

    (d)

    None of these

  97. lCT stands for ________

    (a)

    Information and Communication Technology

    (b)

    Indian Council for Technology

    (c)

    International Communication Technology

    (d)

    Information Course for Technique

  98. Suppose D = 200 - 40P. When D is zero then

    (a)

    P is10

    (b)

    P is 5

    (c)

    P is -5

    (d)

    P is -10

  99. If AB = BA = | A | If then the matrix B is .................

    (a)

    inverse of A

    (b)

    the transpose of A

    (c)

    the adjoint of A

    (d)

    2A

  100. The rank of zero matrix is ..............

    (a)

    0

    (b)

    1

    (c)

    -1

    (d)

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