12th Standard Biology English Medium All Chapter Book Back and Creative One Mark Questions 2020

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Questions:

Multiple Choice Question

90 x 1 = 90

Identify the incorrect statement.
(i) EcoSan toilets is a sustainable way for handling human excreta by using dry composting toilets
(ii) It reduces waste water generation
(iii) It is based on recovery and recycling of nutrients from excreta
(iv) EcoSan toilets are used in several parts of India and Srilanka.

(a)

i and ii only

(b)

iii and iv only

(c)

all the above

(d)

none of the above

Average human consumption of oxygen per day is_________

(a)

280 L

(b)

550 L

(c)

620 L

(d)

730 L

Lac Z gene codes for _______________

(a)

Permease

(b)

transacetylase

(c)

\(\beta \)-galactosidase

(d)

Aminoacyl transferase

Identify the proper ratio of normal visioned individuals against colorblind individuals, if colorblind carrier female marries a normal male.

(a)

1 : 1

(b)

3 : 1

(c)

1 : 3

(d)

All four are normal visioned

Green fluorescent protein (GFP) was isolated from_______

(a)

Aequorea victoria

(b)

Arabidopsis thaliana

(c)

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(d)

Escherichia coli

ABO blood group is a classical example for __________

(a)

Multiple allelism

(b)

Pleotropism

(c)

Incomplete dominance

(d)

Polygenic mechanism

Self-ligation is prevented by____________

(a)

DNA Polymerase

(b)

Helicase

(c)

Alkaline phosphate

(d)

DNA lipase

Organ of copulation in human female is __________________

(a)

Cevix

(b)

Fundus

(c)

Vagina

(d)

Uterus

Enactment of ________ banned the identification of sex and to prevent the prenatal abortion

(a)

POCSO Act

(b)

POTA Act

(c)

PCPNDT Act

(d)

GOONDA Act

10.

Identify the autotriploid plant

(a)

Potato

(b)

Coffee

(c)

Ground nut

(d)

Apple

11.

Which is not a non-ionizing radiation?

(a)

X-rays

(b)

Gamma rays

(c)

Alpha rays

(d)

UV rays

12.

According to Mendel, which is not a dominant trait?

(a)

Wrinkled seeds

(b)

Purple flower

(c)

Inflated pod form

(d)

Axial flower portion

13.

When a single gene influences multiple traits then the phenomenon is called ____________

(a)

Pleiotropy

(b)

Polygenic inheritance

(c)

Epistasis

(d)

Atavism

14.

The white edible part of coconut is __________________

(a)

Epicarp

(b)

Endosperm

(c)

Embryo

(d)

Mesocarp

15.

Earth day is observed on

(a)

April 22^nd

(b)

March 21^st

(c)

July 07^th

(d)

September 16^th

16.

The ideal soil for Cultivation is:

(a)

Loamy soil

(b)

Clayey soil

(c)

Sandy soil

(d)

Silt soil

17.

Cleavage polyembryony is noticed in _________________

(a)

Orchids

(b)

Casuarina

(c)

Balanophora

(d)

Syzygium

18.

Lotic ecosystem refers to________

(a)

Open water ecosystem

(b)

Running water ecosystem

(c)

Standing water ecosystem

(d)

Ocean water ecosystem

19.

Complete the food chain by filling the link X:
Paddy ~ Grasshopper ~ Frog ~ X ~ Hawk

(a)

King cobra

(b)

Gorilla

(c)

Rabbit

(d)

Tasmanian wolf

20.

Dimethyl sulphoxide is a _________.

(a)

Solidifying agent

(b)

Cryoprotectant

(c)

Fusogenic agent

(d)

Stimulant

21.

Identify the group of scientists who developed the intergenic hybrid - the pomato.

(a)

Yamada et al.

(b)

Horsh et al.

(c)

Takebe et al.

(d)

Melchers et al.

22.

Damping off of tomato is controlled by

(a)

Beauveria species

(b)

Trichoderma species

(c)

Acacia species

(d)

Pseudomonas species

23.

Assertion (A): Prosopis juliflora is native to Afghanistan.
Reason (R): Alien species refers to non-native species.

(a)

A is correct R is incorrect.

(b)

A is incorrect R is correct.

(c)

R explains A.

(d)

Both A and R are incorrect.

24.

Identify the plant species that is not used as a live fence.

(a)

Sesbania grandiflora

(b)

Acacia species

(c)

Petunia species

(d)

Erythrina species

25.

Assertion (A): Hybrids show increased growth and elevated yield.
Reason (R): F1 hybrids show Heterosis.

(a)

Both A and R are true. R explains A.

(b)

A is true R is false

(c)

A is false R is true

(d)

Both A and R are false

26.

Identify the incorrect statements:
(a) Morphine is used as potent hepatoprotective.
(b) Phyllanthin is used as a strong analgesic in surgery.
(c) Indian Acalypha is used to cure skin diseases.
(d) Cissus quadrangularis is widely used for treating bone fractures.

(a)

a and c

(b)

a and d

(c)

b and c

(d)

a and b

27.

The plant source of Marijuana is ________

(a)

Andrograph is paniculata

(b)

Phyllanthus maderspatensis

(c)

Cannabis sativa

(d)

Papaver somniferum

28.

A population will not exist in Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium if

(a)

Individuals mate selectively

(b)

There are no mutations

(c)

There is no migration

(d)

The population is large

29.

According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to

(a)

Intraspecific competition

(b)

Interspecific competition

(c)

Competition within closely related species.

(d)

Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species.

30.

Consider the following four conditions (A-D) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to environment in desert lizards.
The conditions:
A) Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature.
B) Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature
C) Bask in sun when temperature is low
D) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis.

(a)

(A) and (C)

(b)

(B) and (D)

(c)

(A) and (B)

(d)

31.

Living organisms originated from non-living materials and occurred through stepwise chemical and molecular evolution is called ________ and this started in the theory of _______.

(a)

Coacervates, biogenesis

(b)

Abiogenesis, spontaneous generation.

(c)

Pre-existing life, chemical evolution.

(d)

Pre-cell, special creation.

32.

Morphological isolation is also known as _______________

(a)

Physiological isolation

(b)

Cytological isolation

(c)

Mechanical isolation

(d)

Seasonal isolation

33.

Identify the bacterial STI

(a)

Gonorrhoea

(b)

Syphilis

(c)

Chlanydiasis

(d)

all the above

34.

Biofertilizers are not involved in this process

(a)

increase water holding capacity of soil

(b)

Help to degrade pollutants

(c)

Provide nutrients

(d)

Improve soil texture

35.

The first bio herbicide was got from_______

(a)

Trichoderma

(b)

Phytophthora species

(c)

Bacillus

(d)

Aspergillus

36.

Nuts are eaten by birds and squirrels. This is an example of an interaction called _____________

(a)

Commensalism

(b)

Mutualism

(c)

Amensalism

(d)

Competition

37.

Rearrange the following steps as PCP in correct order.
1. Extension
2. Annealing
3. Denaturation

(a)

Annealing \(\rightarrow \) Extension \(\rightarrow \) Denaturation

(b)

Denaturation \(\rightarrow \) Annealing \(\rightarrow \) Extension

(c)

Annealing \(\rightarrow \)Denaturation \(\rightarrow \) Extension

(d)

Extension\(\rightarrow \) Annealing \(\rightarrow \) Denaturation

38.

Stem cells that can differentiate into various types of cells that are related in an organism is called

(a)

Multipotent

(b)

Oligopotent

(c)

Pluripotent

(d)

Unipotent

39.

The proximal part of the fallopian tube bears a funnel shaped ______

(a)

Graafian follicle

(b)

Oogonia

(c)

Infundibulum

(d)

corpus luteum

40.

Identify the correct option to label the diagram
1 - Bud forming
2 - Osculum
3 - Bud growing
4 - Daughter individual
5 - Individual parent

(a)

1-A 2-D 3-B 4-C 5-E

(b)

1-B 2-D 3-C 4-E 5-A

(c)

1-D 2-E 3-B 4-C 5-A

(d)

1-A 2-E 3-D 4-B 5-C

41.

One after following statement is wrong. Find out.
I Bhang affects the cardiovascular system
II Opium acts a depresent on the central nervous system
III Lysergic acid diethylamide distorts the way one sees, hears and feels
IV Barbiturates slows down the activity of the fore brain.

(a)

I II IV

(b)

II IV

(c)

all the above

(d)

none of the above

42.

Mode of infection of cholera is__________

(a)

Droplet infection

(b)

through contaminated food and water

(c)

through wound infection

(d)

through wound infection

43.

There are no tRNA, for _______ codons.

(a)

AUG

(b)

GUC

(c)

UAA

(d)

AGA

44.

Autogamy is seen in ______

(a)

Paramecium

(b)

Plasmodium

(c)

Hydra

(d)

Amoeba

45.

_______ is a not a secondary lymphoid organ.

(a)

Spleen

(b)

Adenoid

(c)

Bone marrow

(d)

MALT

46.

Peyer's patches occur in ______

(a)

Nasal passage

(b)

Heart

(c)

Small intestine

(d)

Roof of the mouth

47.

Raja is injured and got swelling. The swelling is due to the infection of tissue is an example of

(a)

Mechanical barrier

(b)

Physiological barrier

(c)

Phagocytosis

(d)

Inflammation

48.

In agglutination and precipitation reactions, the antigen is a ______ and ______ respectively

(a)

Whole cell/soluble molecule

(b)

Soluble molecule/whole cell

(c)

Bacterium/virus

(d)

Protein/Antibody

49.

Assertion: Turmeric fights various kinds of cancer
Reason: Curcumin is an anti-oxidant present in turmeric

(a)

Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong

(b)

Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct

(c)

Both are correct

(d)

Both are wrong

50.

Tectona grandis is coming under family _____.

(a)

Lamiaceae

(b)

Fabaceae

(c)

Dipterocaipaceae

(d)

Ebenaceae

51.

Dwarfing gene of wheat is ______.

(a)

pal 1

(b)

Atomita 1

(c)

Norin 10

(d)

pelita 2

52.

Assertion(A): Genetic variation provides the raw material for selection
Reason(R): Genetic variations are differences in genotypes of the individuals.

(a)

Assertion is right and reason is wrong.

(b)

Assertion is wrong and reason is right

(c)

Both reason and assertion is right.

(d)

Both reason and assertion is wrong.

53.

The plants which are grown in silvopasture system are ______.

(a)

Sesbania and Acacia

(b)

Solenum and Crotalaria

(c)

Clitoria and Begonia

(d)

Teak and sandal

54.

The unit for measuring ozone thickness _____.

(a)

Joule

(b)

Kilos

(c)

Dobson

(d)

Watt

55.

Ecosystem consists of ____.

(a)

decomposers

(b)

producers

(c)

consumers

(d)

all of the above

56.

Which of the following ecosystem has the highest primary productivity?

(a)

Pond ecosystem

(b)

Lake ecosystem

(c)

Grassland ecosystem

(d)

Forest ecosystem

57.

What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid?

(a)

Vanishing population

(b)

Stable population

(c)

Declining population

(d)

Expanding population

58.

Predation and parasitism are which type of interactions?

(a)

(+,+)

(b)

(+, O)

(c)

(--, --)

(d)

(+, --)

59.

Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below:

Column I (Interaction)	Column II (Examples)
I. Mutualism II. Commensalism III. Parasitism IV. Predation V. Amensalism	i) Trichoderma and Penicillium ii) Balanophora, Orobanche iii) Orchids and Ferns iv) Lichen and Mycorrhiza v) Nepenthes and Diaonaea

(a)

I	II	III	IV	V
i	ii	iii	iv	v

(b)

I	II	III	IV	V
ii	iii	iv	v	i

(c)

I	II	III	IV	V
iii	iv	v	i	ii

(d)

I	II	III	IV	V
iv	iii	ii	v	i

60.

Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by _______.

(a)

Serving as a plant growth regulators

(b)

Absorbing inorganic ions from soil

(c)

Helping the plant in utilizing atmospheric nitrogen

(d)

Protecting the plant from infection

61.

The ‘thickness’ of Stratospheric Ozone layer is measured in/on:

(a)

Sieverts units

(b)

Dobson units

(c)

Melson units

(d)

Beaufort Scale

62.

Right to Clean Water is a fundamental right, under the Indian Constitution

(a)

Article 12

(b)

Article 21

(c)

Article 31

(d)

Article 41

63.

How many amino acids are arranged in the two chains of Insulin

(a)

Chain A has 12 and Chain B has 13

(b)

Chain A has 21 and Chain B has 30 amino acids

(c)

Chain A has 20 and Chain B has 30 amino acids

(d)

Chain A has 12 and chain B has 20 amino acids.

64.

The genetic defect adenosine deaminase deficiency may be cured permanently by

(a)

Enzyme replacement therapy

(b)

periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having ADA cDNA

(c)

administering adenosine deaminase activators

(d)

introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into embryo at an early stage of development.

65.

Which of the following is not involved in nitrogen fixation?

(a)

Pseudomonas

(b)

Azotobacter

(c)

Anabaena

(d)

Nostac

66.

Cyclosporin – A is an immunosuppressive drug produced from _______

(a)

Aspergillus niger

(b)

Manascus purpureus

(c)

Penicillium notatum

(d)

Trichoderma polysporum

67.

Who introduced the term biodiversity?

(a)

Edward Wilson

(b)

Walter Rosen

(c)

Norman Myers

(d)

Alice Norman

68.

Which of the following is considered a hotspots of biodiversity in India?

(a)

Western ghats

(b)

Indo-gangetic plain

(c)

Eastern Himalayas

(d)

Both (a) and (c)

69.

Cryopreservation means it is a process to preserve plant cells, tissues or organs _____.

(a)

at very low temperature by using ether.

(b)

at very high temperature by using liquid nitrogen

(c)

at very low temperature of -196°C by using liquid nitrogen

(d)

at very low temperature by using liquid nitrogen

70.

The prevention of large scale loss of biological integrity ____.

(a)

Biopatent

(b)

Bioethics

(c)

Biosafety

(d)

Biofuel

71.

Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I	Column II
A. Copper releasing IUD	(i) LNG-20
B. Hormone releasing	(ii) Lippes loop IUD
C. Non medicated IUD	(iii) Saheli
D. Mini pills	(iv) Multiload-375

(a)

A	B	C	D
(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)

(b)

A	B	C	D
(iv)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)

(c)

A	B	C	D
(i)	(iv)	(ii)	(iii)

(d)

A	B	C	D
(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)

72.

Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are made of rubber and are inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix before coitus.
Statement 2: They are chemical barriers of conception and are reusable.

(a)

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.

(b)

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.

(c)

Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

(d)

Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

73.

An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridisation technique does not use _____.

(a)

Electrophoresis

(b)

Blotting

(c)

Autoradiography

(d)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

74.

Which one of the following palindromic base sequence in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzymes?

(a)

5' CGTTCG 3' 3' ATCGTA 5'

(b)

5'GATATG 3' 3' CTACTA 5'

(c)

5'GAATTC 3' 3' CTTAAG 5'

(d)

5'CACGTA 3' 3' CTCAGT 5'

75.

An operon is a: ______.

(a)

Protein that suppresses gene expression

(b)

Protein that accelerates gene expression

(c)

Cluster of structural genes with related function

(d)

Gene that switched other genes on or off

76.

Which of the following statements about DNA replication is not correct?

(a)

Unwinding of DNA molecule occurs as hydrogen bonds break.

(b)

Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it

(c)

Process is known as semi conservative replication because one old strand is conserved in the new molecule.

(d)

Complementary base pairs are held together with hydrogen bonds

77.

The glandular accessory organ which produces the largest proportion of semen is ______.

(a)

Seminal vesicle

(b)

Bulbourethral gland

(c)

Prostate gland

(d)

Mucous gland

78.

The mature sperms are stored in the ____.

(a)

Seminiferous tubules

(b)

Vas deferens

(c)

Epididymis

(d)

Seminal vesicle

79.

Improvement of human race by encouraging the healthy persons to marry early and produce large number of children is called

(a)

Positive eugenics

(b)

Negative eugenics

(c)

Positive euthenics

(d)

Positive euphenics

80.

Choose the correctly match pair.

(a)

Amphetamines - Stimulant

(b)

LSD - Narcotic

(c)

Heroin - Psychotropic

(d)

Benzodiazepine - Pain killer

81.

Exo-erythrocytic schizogony of Plasmodium takes place in _______

(a)

RBC

(b)

Leucocytes

(c)

Stomach

(d)

Liver

82.

In which mode of reproduction, variations are seen _____.

(a)

Asexual

(b)

Parthenogenesis

(c)

Sexual

(d)

Both a and b

83.

In which type of parthenogenesis are only males produced?

(a)

Arrhenotoky

(b)

Thelytoky

(c)

Amphitoky

(d)

Both a and b

84.

Assertion (A): Gamma rays are generally use to induce mutation in wheat varieties.
Reason (R): Because they carry lower energy to non-ionize electrons from atom

(a)

A and R are correct

(b)

A is correct. R is wrong

(c)

A is wrong. R is correct

(d)

A and R are wrong

85.

If haploid number in a cell is 18. The double monosomic and trisomic number will be _____.

(a)

35 and 37

(b)

34 and 37

(c)

37 and 35

(d)

17 and 19

86.

XO type of sex determination and XY type of sex determination are examples of ______.

(a)

Male heterogamety

(b)

Female heterogamety

(c)

Male homogamety

(d)

Both (b) and (c)

87.

Which of the following explains how progeny can posses the combinations of traits that none of the parent possessed?

(a)

Law of segregation

(b)

Chromosome theory

(c)

Law of independent assortment

(d)

Polygenic inheritance

88.

In a test cross involving F₁ dihybrid flies, more parental type offspring were produced than the recombination type offspring. This indicates ______.

(a)

The two genes are located on two different chromosomes

(b)

Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis

(c)

The two genes are linked and present on the some chromosome

(d)

Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene

89.

Parthenocarpic fruits lack _____.

(a)

Endocarp

(b)

Epicarp

(c)

Mesocarp

(d)

seed

90.

Size of pollen grain in Myosotis ______.

(a)

10 micrometer

(b)

20 micrometer

(c)

200 micrometer

(d)

2000 micrometer

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Answers Key:

Multiple Choice Question

90 x 1 = 90

(d)
none of the above

(b)
550 L

(a)
Aequorea victoria

(a)
Multiple allelism

10.

(d)
Apple

11.

(d)
UV rays

12.

(a)
Wrinkled seeds

13.

(a)
Pleiotropy

14.

(b)
Endosperm

15.

(a)
April 22^nd

16.

(a)
Loamy soil

17.

(a)
Orchids

18.

(b)
Running water ecosystem

19.

(a)
King cobra

20.

(b)
Cryoprotectant

21.

(d)
Melchers et al.

22.

(a)
Beauveria species

23.

(b) A is incorrect R is correct.

24.

25.

(a)
Both A and R are true. R explains A.

26.

(d)
a and b

27.

28.

(a)
Individuals mate selectively

29.

(b)
Interspecific competition

30.

(a)
(A) and (C)

31.

(b)
Abiogenesis, spontaneous generation.

32.

33.

(d)
all the above

34.

(b)
Help to degrade pollutants

35.

(b)
Phytophthora species

36.

(d)
Competition

37.

(b)
Denaturation \(\rightarrow \) Annealing \(\rightarrow \) Extension

38.

(a)
Multipotent

39.

40.

(b)
1-B 2-D 3-C 4-E 5-A

41.

(d)
none of the above

42.

(a)
Droplet infection

43.

44.

(a)
Paramecium

45.

46.

47.

(d)
Inflammation

48.

(a)
Whole cell/soluble molecule

49.

50.

(a)
Lamiaceae

51.

52.

53.

(a)
Sesbania and Acacia

54.

55.

(d)
all of the above

56.

(d)
Forest ecosystem

57.

(b)
Stable population

58.

(d)
(+, --)

59.

(d)

I II III IV V

iv iii ii v i

60.

(b)
Absorbing inorganic ions from soil

61.

(b)
Dobson units

62.

(b)
Article 21

63.

(b)
Chain A has 21 and Chain B has 30 amino acids

64.

(a)
Enzyme replacement therapy

65.

(a)
Pseudomonas

66.

(d)
Trichoderma polysporum

67.

(b)
Walter Rosen

68.

(d)
Both (a) and (c)

69.

70.

71.

(d)

A B C D

(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

72.

73.

(d)
Polymerase Chain Reaction

74.

75.

76.

(b)
Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it

77.

(a)
Seminal vesicle

78.

79.

(a)
Positive eugenics

80.

(a)
Amphetamines - Stimulant

81.

(d)
Liver

82.

83.

(a)
Arrhenotoky

84.

85.

(b)
34 and 37

86.

(a)
Male heterogamety

87.

88.

89.

(d)
seed

90.

(a)
10 micrometer

12th Standard Biology English Medium All Chapter Book Back and Creative One Mark Questions 2020

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