12th Standard Commerce English Medium All Chapter Book Back and Creative one Mark Questions 2020

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Questions:

Multiple Choice Question

167 x 1 = 167

An abstract of receipts and payments upto a date within ___________ days of the report.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

The total managerial remuneration payable by a public limited company to its director or manager should not exceed __________ of the net profits of that financial year.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

11%

The first board meeting should be held within ___________ days of the date of incorporation.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

The directors should conduct their work with

(a)

good faith

(b)

utmost care

(c)

delegate work

(d)

None of these

List I		List II
i)	Issue of shares at par	1)	Except sweat equity share
ii)	Issue of shares at premium	2)	Reserves and surplus
iii)	Issue of securities at discount	3)	Write off preliminary expenses
iv)	Bouns shares	4)	No legal restrictions

(a)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1	2	3	4

(b)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2	3	1	4

(c)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3	4	2	1

(d)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4	3	1	2

The articles of association need to be signed by

(a)

all proposed directors

(b)

registrar

(c)

subscribers of memorandum

(d)

none of the above

__________ is a foremost challenge facing India.

(a)

New programmes

(b)

Innovation

(c)

Job Creation

(d)

None of these

Make in India initiative was launched in

(a)

April 2014

(b)

September 2014

(c)

May 2014

(d)

None of these

____________ entrepreneurs are those who are totally opposed to changes unfolding in the environment.

(a)

Technical

(b)

Pure

(c)

Fabian

(d)

Drone

10.

Campus selection is a ______ source of recruitment.

(a)

internal

(b)

external

(c)

modern

(d)

none of these

11.

Promotion is a _____ source recruitment.

(a)

suitable

(b)

higher

(c)

internal

(d)

external

12.

______ is not an internal source of recruitment.

(a)

Promotion

(b)

Transfer

(c)

Job rotation

(d)

Advaertisement

13.

Sources for recruiting should be periodically _____

(a)

changed

(b)

checked

(c)

evaluated

(d)

inspired

14.

_____ is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organization.

(a)

Advertising

(b)

Selection

(c)

Recruitment

(d)

Staffing

15.

Recruitment or manpower selection process is the first step in the employment of ______

(a)

Labour

(b)

Management

(c)

Both (A) and (B)

(d)

None of the above

16.

_____ types of firms facilitate recruitment on behalf of client companies at cost.

(a)

Professional associations

(b)

Employment consultancies

(c)

Deputation

(d)

Job portals

17.

_____ connects the job provider and the job seeker by providing the relevant and required information.

(a)

Professional associations

(b)

Private employment agencies

(c)

Job portals

(d)

Deputation

18.

_____ has become inevitable external source of recruitment.

(a)

Campus recruitment

(b)

Rival firms

(c)

E-recruitment

(d)

None of these

19.

External sources can be classified into _____ sources.

(a)

two

(b)

three

(c)

four

(d)

five

20.

_____ acts as a link between job provider and job seeker.

(a)

Selection

(b)

Training

(c)

Motivation

(d)

Recruitment

21.

_____ is the process of finding suitable candidates for the various posts in an organisation.

(a)

Recruitment

(b)

Selection

(c)

Training

(d)

Placement

22.

	List I		List II
i)	Advertisement	1)	Poaching
ii)	Walkins	2)	Online method
iii)	Rival firms	3)	Source of requirements
iv)	e-recruitment	4)	Nature of work

(a)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3	4	2	1

(b)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1	2	3	4

(c)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4	3	1	2

(d)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2	1	4	3

23.

	List I		List II
i)	Transfer	1)	Merits of the employees
ii)	Upgrading	2)	Managing to learn
iii)	Job rotation	3)	Lower position to higher position
iv)	Promotion	4)	Deficit staff

(a)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4	3	2	1

(b)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3	2	1	4

(c)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1	2	4	3

(d)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2	1	3	4

24.

Rural entrepreneurs are start a business in

(a)

rural locations

(b)

towns

(c)

cities

(d)

none of the above

25.

Rearrange the following steps of recruitment.
I. Searching
II. Evaluation and Control
III. Planning
IV. Screening
V. Strategy development

(a)

III, II, I, V,IV

(b)

III, V, I, IV, II

(c)

IV, V, III, II

(d)

II, I, IV, V, III

26.

The following is concerned with developing a pool of candidates in line with the human resources plan

(a)

Development

(b)

Training

(c)

Recruitment

(d)

None of these

27.

Identifying the right people in rival companies, offering them better terms and luring them away is popularly called as

(a)

Competition

(b)

Acquisition

(c)

Poaching

(d)

None of the above

28.

Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and want ads?

(a)

Direct

(b)

Indirect

(c)

Both

(d)

none of the above

29.

The following is a source of recruitment

(a)

(b)

Reference

(c)

Employment agency

(d)

All of the above

30.

The recruitment and selection process aimed at right kind of people

(a)

At right place

(b)

At right time

(c)

To do right things

(d)

all of the above

31.

Comparison between numbers of applications at each preceding stage of recruitment process is classified as

(a)

initialization ratio

(b)

resultant ratio

(c)

yield ratio

(d)

application ratio

32.

In recruitment costs, agency fees, recruitment advertisement and salaries of recruiters is classified as

(a)

direct cost

(b)

indirect cost

(c)

both

(d)

none of the above

33.

In recruitment cost, costs such as salaries of operating managers and public relation managers are classified as

(a)

direct costs

(b)

marginal costs

(c)

indirect costs

(d)

labour costs

34.

Rate which is used to represent that organization is successful at hiring conditions is classified as

(a)

selection rate

(b)

yield rate

(c)

acceptance rate

(d)

success base rate

35.

Poaching is also called

(a)

Raiding

(b)

Unsolicited application

(c)

Profession

(d)

Tutor

36.

The term entrepreneur has been derived from the _____________ language.

(a)

Latin

(b)

French

(c)

English

(d)

All of these

37.

_________ is famously referred to as India's Bill Gates at a result.

(a)

Anil Ambani

(b)

Premji

(c)

Birla

(d)

Dilip Shangavi

38.

_____________ was the founder of Reliance industries.

(a)

Dhirubhai Ambani

(b)

Anil Ambani

(c)

Mukesh Ambani

(d)

Ratna

39.

___________ are more prone to a variety of emotions.

(a)

Men

(b)

Women

(c)

Children

(d)

None of these

40.

__________ reduces the efficiency of operating the business successfully.

(a)

Problem of finance

(b)

Limited mobility

(c)

Lack of education

(d)

Stiff competition

41.

_________ is accredited by Government of India.

(a)

STEP

(b)

CWEI

(c)

DIC

(d)

TREAD

42.

Women constitute _________ of the economic enterprise.

(a)

one third

(b)

two third

(c)

one fourth

(d)

two fourth

43.

__________ is a salaries employee in the entity set up for carrying on the venture.

(a)

Owner

(b)

Entrepreneur

(c)

Manager

(d)

None of these

44.

___________ does not share in profits of venture.

(a)

Entrepreneur

(b)

Intrapreneur

(c)

Promoter

(d)

Manager

45.

_________ is dependent on the entrepreneur.

(a)

Intrapreneur

(b)

Manager

(c)

Consumer

(d)

Organisation

46.

Entrepreneur should have a ____________ to visualise future business environment.

(a)

leadership

(b)

ability

(c)

foresight

(d)

decision making

47.

Entrepreneur should have a ____________in order to achieve high goals in the business.

(a)

spirit of enterprise

(b)

self confidence

(c)

flexibility

(d)

innovation

48.

Entrepreneurs are classified into _________ groups.

(a)

two

(b)

three

(c)

four

(d)

five

49.

__________ defines an entrepreneur as the director or a manager of a musical institution.

(a)

American Dictionary

(b)

London Dictionary

(c)

Oxford Dictionary

(d)

None of these

50.

Human resource exhibits _____ and _____

(a)

innovation, creativity

(b)

workers, employees

(c)

both

(d)

none of these

51.

List I		List II
i)	Innovation	1)	Employee
ii)	GDP	2)	Human relational skills
iii)	Intrapreneur	3)	Growth of entrepreneurship
iv)	Manager	4)	New territory or new technology

(a)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2	3	1	4

(b)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1	2	3	4

(c)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4	3	1	2

(d)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3	1	2	4

52.

List I		List II
i)	Spirit of enterprise	1)	Rigid fashion
ii)	Flexibility	2)	Manpower, technology
iii)	Resource mobilisation	3)	Sympathy and empathy
iv)	Leadership	4)	Setbacks or frustrations.

(a)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4	1	2	3

(b)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1	2	3	4

(c)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2	3	1	4

(d)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3	4	2	1

53.

List I		List II
i)	Entrepreneur	1)	Military expeditions
ii)	Musical institution	2)	Realm of economics
iii)	Sixteenth century	3)	Oxford Dictionary
iv)	Eighteenth century	4)	French language

(a)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1	2	3	4

(b)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2	3	4	1

(c)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4	3	1	2

(d)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3	1	2	4

54.

Human resource can work as a

(a)

unity

(b)

reliable

(c)

team

(d)

none of the these

55.

A women entrepreneur is supposed to have a minimum financial interest in share capital of entrepreneur's enterprise:

(a)

35 percent

(b)

51 percent

(c)

25 percent

(d)

None of the above

56.

Name the institution which is set up as an apex bank to provide direct or indirect financial assistance under difference scheme.

(a)

SIDBI

(b)

NSIC

(c)

NABARD

(d)

CWEI

57.

Name the institution which was set up in 1982 to promote integrated rural development.

(a)

NSIC

(b)

NABARD

(c)

SIDBI

(d)

NCEUS

58.

The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is

(a)

idea generation

(b)

determination

(c)

investigation

(d)

preparation of business plan

59.

CWEI was registered as a civil society in the year

(a)

1990

(b)

1992

(c)

1996

(d)

1998

60.

"Women who innovate, imitate or adopt a business activity are known as women entrepreneurs".

(a)

Jean Baptize

(b)

Knight

(c)

Richard

(d)

Schumpeter

61.

Women entrepreneurship is gaining importance in India in the wake of economic

(a)

liberalisation

(b)

globalisation

(c)

(a) or (b)

(d)

(a) and (b)

62.

"Entrepreneurship is essentially a creative activity" - who said these words?

(a)

Schumpeter

(b)

Richard

(c)

Knight

(d)

Jean Baptize

63.

An Irishman described the entrepreneur to be a person who assumes risk inherent in the venture started by him who said these words?

(a)

Jean Baptize

(b)

Knight

(c)

Schumpeter

(d)

Richard Cantillon

64.

The output of an entrepreneurial process ends up in establishing an

(a)

environment

(b)

enterprise

(c)

organisation

(d)

none of these

65.

The person who establishes business is termed as

(a)

Entrepreneur

(b)

Intrapreneur

(c)

Promoter

(d)

Manager

66.

The exchange generating the largest volume in the United States is the:

(a)

American Stock

(b)

New York Stock Exchange

(c)

Chicago Stock Exchange

(d)

Pacific Stock Exchange

67.

Legal document required by securities Exchange commission stating associated risks and detailed description of issues is classified as

(a)

prospectus

(b)

stated document

(c)

risk detailed document

(d)

exchange commission document

68.

A negotiable instrument is freely transferable, by delivery if it is a/an _______________ instrument.

(a)

order

(b)

bearer

(c)

both 'a' and 'b'

(d)

none of these

69.

____________ is to be made on the face of the instrument or on its back.

(a)

Cheque

(b)

Bill of exchange

(c)

Endorsement

(d)

None of these

70.

_____ are not allowed to enter in the trading circles of the stock exchange.

(a)

Insiders

(b)

Outsiders

(c)

Workers

(d)

Managers

71.

____________ commodities are raw materials typically mined.

(a)

Hard

(b)

Soft

(c)

Both

(d)

None of these

72.

	List I		List II
i)	Hard commodities	1)	Financial risk
ii)	Soft commodities	2)	Scripless and floorless
iii)	Derivatives market	3)	Coffee and sugar
iv)	NSEI	4)	Rubber and iron

(a)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1	2	3	4

(b)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4	3	1	2

(c)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2	3	4	1

(d)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3	2	1	4

73.

A bear is a

(a)

Premium hunter

(b)

Optimistic speculator

(c)

Pessimistic speculator

(d)

Tejiwala

74.

________ means that the goods must be saleable in the market under that denomination.

(a)

Sale by sample

(b)

Wholesomeness

(c)

Merchantability

(d)

None of these

75.

_________ has unlimited rights of the property purchased against the whole world.

(a)

Seller

(b)

Buyer

(c)

Both 'a' and 'b'

(d)

None of these

76.

_____ is an instrument drawn by a seller of goods on a buyer of goods.

(a)

Treasury bill

(b)

Certificate of deposit

(c)

Commercial bill

(d)

None of these

77.

____ are the nerve centre of the whole money market.

(a)

Commercial banks

(b)

Reserve bank

(c)

State bank

(d)

Indian Overseas bank

78.

__________ is the market for short term financial claim.

(a)

Debt market

(b)

Equity market

(c)

Money market

(d)

Capital market

79.

List I		List II
i)	Savings Mobilization	1)	Flow of funds
ii)	National Growth	2)	Government securities
iii)	Marketable assets	3)	Pension funds
iv)	Non-marketable assets	4)	Household individuals

(a)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4	1	2	3

(b)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1	2	3	4

(c)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2	3	4	1

(d)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3	4	1	2

80.

_________ is a time consuming process.

(a)

MBE

(b)

KRA

(c)

MBO

(d)

None of these

81.

Management by objective (MBO) is also known as

(a)

Management by results

(b)

Management by goals

(c)

Management by planning

(d)

Management by evaluation

82.

List I		List II
i)	IMF	1)	Liberalization, privatization and Globalization
ii)	NEP	2)	International Bank for Reconstrction and Development
iii)	LPG	3)	New Economic polic
iv)	IBRD	4)	International Monetary Fund

(a)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1	2	3	4

(b)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3	4	2	1

(c)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4	3	1	2

(d)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2	1	4	3

83.

Globalization can create problems for business because.

(a)

it can result in more competition

(b)

it increases vulnerability to the political risk and uncertainty when operating abroad

(c)

it means that they can increase price

(d)

none of the above

84.

_________ refers to placement of right persons in the right jobs.

(a)

Directing

(b)

Planning

(c)

Controlling

(d)

Staffing

85.

Nothing can be performed without

(a)

Organising

(b)

Staffing

(c)

Planning

(d)

Controlling

86.

_________ economy is a combination of both state owned and private sector ownership.

(a)

Socialistic

(b)

Capitalistic

(c)

Mixed

(d)

None of these

87.

_________ refers to the factors outside the business.

(a)

External environment

(b)

Internal environment

(c)

Both 'a' and 'b'

(d)

None of these

88.

________is the acquisition of goods and services by the seller or industrial user for the purpose of resale.

(a)

Selling

(b)

Assembling

(c)

Buying

(d)

Transportation

89.

List I		List II
i)	Batter system	1)	Dominant factor
ii)	Production Orientation	2)	Large scale sales promotion
iii)	Sales orientation	3)	Consumer preferences
iv)	Marketing orientation	4)	Medium of exchange

(a)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1	2	3	4

(b)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4	3	1	2

(c)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2	3	1	4

(d)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3	4	2	1

90.

Members of state consumer protection council should not exceed

(a)

two

(b)

five

(c)

ten

(d)

three

91.

____________ requires a complete change in the outlook of both management and workers

(a)

Group discussion

(b)

Rule of Thumb

(c)

Cooperation

(d)

Mental revolution

92.

The state commission may reverse or confirm the orders passed by the

(a)

National Commission

(b)

District Forum

(c)

Central commission

(d)

None of these

93.

Sub-division of marketing is called as

(a)

market segmentation

(b)

decision of market

(c)

allowcation of market

(d)

none of these

94.

Which market is regulated and controlled by certain rules?

(a)

Commodity market

(b)

Produce exchange market

(c)

National market

(d)

World Market

95.

________ and _______ on the package should provide objective information to buyers.

(a)

Advertising, labelling

(b)

Labelling, motivating

(c)

Planning, labelling

(d)

None of these

96.

A reporting relationship in which an employe receives order from, and reports to only on supervisor is known as

(a)

Unity of direction

(b)

Unity of command

(c)

Centralization

(d)

Planning

97.

Who cheat consumer by using unfair weight and measure?

(a)

Producers

(b)

Employees

(c)

Sellers

(d)

Workers

98.

The planned use of networked information and communications technology for the delivery of training is called

(a)

e-learning

(b)

role playing

(c)

case study

(d)

Programmed learning

99.

Doctors conference and salesman conference are the examples of

(a)

Role play method

(b)

Coaching method

(c)

Apprentice training method

(d)

Seminar / conference method

100.

__________ is a king of the market.

(a)

Workers

(b)

Consumer

(c)

Producer

(d)

Seller

101.

List I		List II
i)	Sale of goods act	1)	1955
ii)	The Indian contract Act	2)	1937
iii)	The Essential Commodities Act	3)	1982
iv)	The Agricultural products grading and marketing Act	4)	1930

(a)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1	2	3	4

(b)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2	3	4	1

(c)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4	3	1	2

(d)

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3	4	2	1

102.

E-commerce involves the application of

(a)

Knowledge Management Systems

(b)

Product Management Systems

(c)

Services Management Systems

(d)

All of the above

103.

The boundaries of nations are disappearing for exploiting the opportunities of

(a)

business

(b)

industry

(c)

commerce

(d)

accounts

104.

________is quite contrary to structured interview.

(a)

Panel interview

(b)

Unstructured interview

(c)

Stress Interview

(d)

Guided interview

105.

The main aim of selection process is to find out the suitable candidate for

(a)

more job

(b)

higher salary

(c)

specific job

(d)

none of these

106.

The two major types of business environment are ________ and ________.

(a)

Positive and Negative

(b)

Internal and External

(c)

Good and Bad

(d)

Allowable and Unallowable

107.

VUCA stands for ________, _________, ________.

(a)

Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity and Ambiguity

(b)

Value, Unavoidable, Company and Authority

(c)

Volatility, Uncontrollable, Company and Auction

(d)

All of the above

108.

A special resolution must be filed with the Registrar within

(a)

7 days

(b)

14 days

(c)

30 days

(d)

60 days

109.

Board Meetings to be conducted minimum _____ times in a year.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

110.

According to Companies Act, the Directors must be appointed by the _______.

(a)

Central Government

(b)

Company Law Tribunal

(c)

Company in General Meeting

(d)

Board of Directors

111.

Which director need not hold qualifying shares.

(a)

Directors appointed to Central Government

(b)

Directors appointed to Shareholders

(c)

Directors appointed to Managing Director

(d)

Directors appointed to Board of Directors

112.

The Companies Act 2013 Prohibits the issue of shares at__________ to the public.

(a)

Premium

(b)

Par

(c)

Discount

(d)

Both at par and Premium

113.

Specify the document which comes under the Negotiable Instrument Act.

(a)

Share Certificate

(b)

(c)

Share Warrant

(d)

Stock

114.

_____ should cover aspects like sources of finance, technical know-how, source of labour and raw material, market potential and profitability.

(a)

Technical Report

(b)

Finance Report

(c)

Project Report

(d)

Progress Report

115.

______ is the Government of India's endeavour to promote culture of innovation and entrepreneurship.

(a)

AIM

(b)

STEP

(c)

SEED

(d)

AIC

116.

Corporate Entrepreneur is also called as _________

(a)

Intrapreneur

(b)

Promoter

(c)

Manager

(d)

Shareholder

117.

Which of the following is the Activity of a Business Entrepreneur?

(a)

Production

(b)

Marketing

(c)

Operation

(d)

All of the above

118.

Which of the below is a commercial function?

(a)

Accounting

(b)

Coordination

(c)

Discovery of idea

(d)

Planning

119.

Which of the below is not classified into managerial functions?

(a)

Planning

(b)

Marketing

(c)

Organizing

(d)

Controlling

120.

What are the characteristics of an entrepreneur?

(a)

Spirit of enterprice

(b)

Flexibility

(c)

Self Confidence

(d)

All of the above

121.

Entrepreneur is not classified as _____.

(a)

Risk Bearer

(b)

Innovator

(c)

Employee

(d)

Organizer

122.

Which of the below is a factor of production?

(a)

Land

(b)

Labour

(c)

Enterpreneurship

(d)

All of the above

123.

A cheque will become stale after _______ months of its date:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

124.

When crossing restrict further negotiation

(a)

Not negotiable crossing

(b)

General Crossing

(c)

A\c payee crossing

(d)

Special crossing

125.

____ is a stipulation which is collateral to main purpose of contract.

(a)

Warranty

(b)

Condition

(c)

Right

(d)

Agreement

126.

In which of the following types, the ownership is immediately transferred to buyer ?

(a)

When goods are ascertained

(b)

When goods are appropriate

(c)

Delivery to the carrier

(d)

Sale or return basis

127.

_________ ownership makes bold management decisions due to their strong foundation in the international level.

(a)

Private

(b)

Public

(c)

Corporate

(d)

MNC's

128.

________ means permitting the private sector to setup industries which were previously reserved for public sector.

(a)

Liberalisation

(b)

Privatisation

(c)

Globalisation

(d)

Public Enterprise

129.

A consumer has to be protected against

(a)

Defects of product

(b)

Deficiencies of product

(c)

Unfair and restrictive trade practices

(d)

All of the above

130.

The International Organisation of Consumers Unions (IOCU) was first established in ______.

(a)

1960

(b)

1965

(c)

1967

(d)

1987

131.

Which of the following is not a consumer right summed up by John F. Kennedy?

(a)

Right to safety

(b)

Right to choose

(c)

Right to consume

(d)

Right to be informed

132.

The final aim of modern marketing is______.

(a)

Maximum profit

(b)

Minimum profit

(c)

Consumer satisfaction

(d)

Service to the society

133.

The General Assembly of United Nations passed resolution of consumer protection guide lines on

(a)

1985

(b)

1958

(c)

1986

(d)

1988

134.

Who is the father of Consumer Movement?

(a)

Mahatma Gandhi

(b)

Mr. Jhon F.Kennedy

(c)

Ralph Nader

(d)

Jawaharlal Nehru

135.

Which is gateway to internet?

(a)

Portal

(b)

CPU

(c)

Modem

(d)

Webnaire

136.

Selling goods/ services through internet is _______.

(a)

Green marketing

(b)

E- business

(c)

Social marketing

(d)

Meta marketing

137.

Which one is the example of Intangible product?

(a)

Education

(b)

Mobiles

(c)

Garments

(d)

Vehicles

138.

The initial stage of Marketing system is ______.

(a)

Monopoly system

(b)

Exchange to Money

(c)

Barter system

(d)

Self producing

139.

Which one of the market deals in the purchase and sale of shares and debentures?

(a)

Stock Exchange Market

(b)

Manufactured Goods Market

(c)

Local Market

(d)

Family Market

140.

The marketer initially wants to know in the marketing is_______

(a)

Qualification of the customer

(b)

Quality of the product

(c)

Background of the customers

(d)

Needs of the customers

141.

______is useful to prevent skill obsolescence of employees

(a)

Training

(b)

Job analysis

(c)

Selection

(d)

Recruitment

142.

Vestibule training is provided

(a)

On the job

(b)

In the class room

(c)

In a situation similar to actual working environment

(d)

By the committee

143.

_____refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so as to build a pool of qualified job applicants.

(a)

Selection

(b)

Training

(c)

Recruitment

(d)

Induction

144.

The recruitment and selection process aimed at right kind of people.

(a)

At right people

(b)

At right time

(c)

To do right things

(d)

All of the above

145.

E-recruitment is possible only through ___ facility.

(a)

Computer

(b)

Internet

(c)

Broadband

(d)

146.

Transfer is an _____ source of recruitment.

(a)

internal

(b)

external

(c)

outsourcing

(d)

None of the above

147.

Advertisement is a ______ source of recruitment

(a)

internal

(b)

external

(c)

agent

(d)

outsourcing

148.

Recruitment bridges gap between ____ and ______.

(a)

job seeker and job provider

(b)

job seeker and agent

(c)

job provider and owner

(d)

owner and servant

149.

Recruitment is the process of identifying ______.

(a)

right man for right job

(b)

good performer

(c)

Right job

(d)

All of the above

150.

Labour turnover is the rate at which employees _____ the organisation.

(a)

enter

(b)

leave

(c)

Salary

(d)

None of the above

151.

Human resource management determines the ______ relationship.

(a)

internal, external

(b)

employer, employee

(c)

Owner, Servant

(d)

Principle, Agent

152.

_____ was the first company to trade its shares in Demat form.

(a)

Tata Industries

(b)

Reliance Industries

(c)

Infosys

(d)

Birla Industries

153.

The headquarters of SEBI is ______

(a)

Calcutta

(b)

Bombay

(c)

Chennai

(d)

Delhi

154.

Jobbers transact in a stock exchange ____.

(a)

For their Clients

(b)

For their Own Transactions

(c)

For other Brokers

(d)

For other Members

155.

Stock exchanges deal in

(a)

Goods

(b)

Services

(c)

Financial Securities

(d)

Country's Currency

156.

A marketable document of title to a time deposit for a specified period may be referred to as a _____

(a)

Treasury Bill

(b)

Certificate of Deposit

(c)

Commercial Bill

(d)

Government Securities

157.

Money Market Institutions are _____

(a)

Investment Houses

(b)

Mortgage Banks

(c)

Reserve Bank of india

(d)

Commercial Banks and Discount Houses

158.

Participants in the capital market includes ______.

(a)

Individuals

(b)

Corporate

(c)

Financial Institutions

(d)

All of the above

159.

Primary market is a Market where securities are traded in the ______.

(a)

First Time

(b)

Second Time

(c)

Three Time

(d)

Several Times

160.

Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash occurs _______.

(a)

Immediately

(b)

In the future

(c)

Uncertain

(d)

After one month

161.

Primary market is also called as _______.

(a)

Secondary market

(b)

Money market

(c)

New Issue Market

(d)

Indirect Market

162.

Delegation of Authority is Easily Done with the Help of _______.

(a)

MBM

(b)

MBE

(c)

MBO

(d)

MBA

163.

__________ System gives full Scope to the Individual Strength and Responsibility.

(a)

MBO

(b)

MBE

(c)

MBM

(d)

MBA

164.

_______ is included in every managerial function.

(a)

Co-ordinating

(b)

Controlling

(c)

Staffing

(d)

Organising

165.

Which of the following is not a main function?

(a)

Decision-making

(b)

Planning

(c)

Organising

(d)

Staffing

166.

With a wider span, there will be ________ hierarchical levels.

(a)

(b)

Less

(c)

Multiple

(d)

Additional

167.

Dividing the work into small tasks is known as ______.

(a)

Discipline

(b)

Unity

(c)

Division of work

(d)

Equity

Generic 5

4 x 5 = 20

168.

Discuss the disadvantages of MBE.

169.

Explain the various disadvantages of MBO.

170.

What are the advantages of MBE? (any 5)

171.

What are the major advantages of MBO? (any 5)

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Answers Key:

Multiple Choice Question

167 x 1 = 167

(d)
7

(d)
11%

(a)
30

(b)
utmost care

(d)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

4 3 1 2

(b)
September 2014

(d)
Drone

10.

(b)
external

11.

12.

(d)
Advaertisement

13.

14.

15.

(a)
Labour

16.

(b)
Employment consultancies

17.

(b)
Private employment agencies

18.

19.

(a)
two

20.

(d)
Recruitment

21.

(a)
Recruitment

22.

23.

(a)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

4 3 2 1

24.

(a)
rural locations

25.

(b)
III, V, I, IV, II

26.

27.

28.

(b)
Indirect

29.

(d)
All of the above

30.

(d)
all of the above

31.

32.

(a)
direct cost

33.

34.

35.

(a)
Raiding

36.

(b)
French

37.

(b)
Premji

38.

(a)
Dhirubhai Ambani

39.

(b)
Women

40.

41.

(b)
CWEI

42.

(a)
one third

43.

44.

(b)
Intrapreneur

45.

(a)
Intrapreneur

46.

47.

(b)
self confidence

48.

(b)
three

49.

50.

(a)
innovation, creativity

51.

52.

(a)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

4 1 2 3

53.

54.

55.

56.

(a)
SIDBI

57.

(b)
NABARD

58.

(a)
idea generation

59.

60.

(d)
Schumpeter

61.

(d)
(a) and (b)

62.

(a)
Schumpeter

63.

(d)
Richard Cantillon

64.

(b)
enterprise

65.

(a)
Entrepreneur

66.

(b)
New York Stock Exchange

67.

68.

(b)
bearer

69.

70.

(b)
Outsiders

71.

(a)
Hard

72.

(b)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

4 3 1 2

73.

74.

75.

(b)
Buyer

76.

77.

(a)
Commercial banks

78.

79.

(a)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

4 1 2 3

80.

81.

(a)
Management by results

82.

83.

(a)
it can result in more competition

84.

(d)
Staffing

85.

86.

87.

(a)
External environment

88.

(b)
Assembling

89.

(b)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

4 3 1 2

90.

91.

(d)
Mental revolution

92.

(b)
District Forum

93.

(a)
market segmentation

94.

(b)
Produce exchange market

95.

(a)
Advertising, labelling

96.

(b)
Unity of command

97.

98.

(a)
e-learning

99.

(d)
Seminar / conference method

100.

(b)
Consumer

101.

(a)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

1 2 3 4

102.

(a)
Knowledge Management Systems

103.

(a)
business

104.

(b)
Unstructured interview

105.

106.

(b)
Internal and External

107.

(a)
Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity and Ambiguity

108.

109.

110.

111.

(a)
Directors appointed to Central Government

112.

113.

114.

115.

(a)
AIM

116.

(b)
Promoter

117.

(d)
All of the above

118.

(a)
Accounting

119.

(b)
Marketing

120.

(d)
All of the above

121.

122.

(d)
All of the above

123.

(a)
3

124.

(a)
Not negotiable crossing

125.

(a)
Warranty

126.

127.

(a)
Private

128.

(b)
Privatisation

129.

(d)
All of the above

130.

(a)
1960

131.

132.

133.

(a)
1985

134.

135.

136.

(b)
E- business

137.

(a)
Education

138.

139.

(a)
Stock Exchange Market

140.

(d)
Needs of the customers

141.

(a)
Training

142.

143.

144.

(d)
All of the above

145.

(b)
Internet

146.

(a)
internal

147.

(b)
external

148.

(a)
job seeker and job provider

149.

(a)
right man for right job

150.

(b)
leave

151.

(b)
employer, employee

152.

(b)
Reliance Industries

153.

(b)
Bombay

154.

(b)
For their Own Transactions

155.

156.

(b)
Certificate of Deposit

157.

(d)
Commercial Banks and Discount Houses

158.

(d)
All of the above

159.

(a)
First Time

160.

(a)
Immediately

161.

162.

163.

(a)
MBO

164.

(a)
Co-ordinating

165.

(a)
Decision-making

166.

(b)
Less

167.

Generic 5

4 x 5 = 20

168.

(i) The main disadvantage of MBE is, only managers have the power over really important decisions, which can be demotivating for employees at a lower level
(ii) Furthermore, it takes time to pass the issues to managers.
(iii) Managing employees who deviate from the normal procedures.
(iv) Because of compliance failures are considered difficult to manage and typically find themselves with limited job duties and ultimately dismissed / terminated.

169.

The disadvantages of MBO are:
(i) MBO fails to explain the philosophy; most of the executives do not know how MBO works? What is MBO? and why is MBO necessary? and how participants can benefit by MBO?
(ii) MBO is a time consuming process. Much time is needed by senior people for framing the MBO.
(iii) Next, it leads to heavy expenditure. Sometimes, managers are frustrated over MBO. MBO requires heavy paper work.
(iv) MBO emphasises only on short-term objectives and does not consider the long-term objective
(v) The status of sub-ordinates is necessary for proper objectives setting. But, this is not possible in the process ofMBO.
(vi) MBO is rigid one. Objectives should be changed according to the changed circumstances, external or internal.
(vii) If it is not done, the planned results cannot be obtained.
(viii) The objectives are set without considering the available resources.

170.

Management by exception provides the following
advantages.
(i) It saves the time of managers because they deal only with exceptional matters. Routine problems are left to subordinates.
(ii) It focuses managerial attention on major problems. As a result, there is better utilisation of managerial talents and energy.
(iii) It facilitates delegation of authority. Top management concentrates on strategic decisions and operational decisions are left to the lower levels.
(iv) It is a technique of separating important information from unimportant one. It forces managers to review past history and study related business data for identifying deviations.
(v) MBE keeps management alert to opportunities and threats by identifying critical problems. It can avoid uninformed and impulsive action.
(vi) Management by exception provides better yardsticks for judging results. It is helpful in objective performance appraisal.

171.

The advantages of MBO are explained below:
(i) Managers are involved in objectives setting at various levels of management under MBO and this commitment ensures hard work to achieve them.
(ii) MBO process helps the managers to understand their role in the total organisation.
(iii) Manager recognises the need for planning and appreciates the planning.
(iv) MBO provides a foundation for participative management. Subordinates are also involved in goal setting.
(v) A department does not work at cross purpose with another department.