The sample space S = {H,T} \(\times\) {H,T}
That is S = {TT, TH, HT, HH}
Let X be the random variable denoting the number of heads.
Therefore
X (TT ) = 0 , X (TH ) = 1,
X (HT) = 1, and X (HH) = 2 .
Then the random variable X takes on the values 0, 1 and 2

The probabilities are given by

\(f(0)=P(X=0)=\cfrac { 1 }{ 4 } \) 
\(f(1)=P(X=1)=\cfrac { 1 }{ 2 } \) 
and \(f(2)=P(X=2)=\cfrac { 1 }{ 4 } \) 
The function f (x) satisfies the conditions
(i) f (x) ≥ 0 , for x = 0, 1, 2
(ii) \(\underset { x }{ \Sigma } f(x)=\sum _{ x=0 }^{ x=2 }{ f(x) } =f(0)+f(1)+f(2)\) 
= \(\cfrac { 1 }{ 4 } +{ \cfrac { 1 }{ 2 } +\cfrac { 1 }{ 4 } =1 }\) 
Therefore f (x) is a probability mass function.
The probability mass function is given by

(or)
\(f(x)\begin{cases} \begin{matrix} \frac { 1 }{ 4 } & forx=0 \end{matrix} \\ \begin{matrix} \frac { 1 }{ 2 } & forx=1 \end{matrix} \\ \begin{matrix} \frac { 1 }{ 4 } & forx=2 \end{matrix} \end{cases}\)

The possible events of selection are
(i) both balls may be black, or
(ii) one white and one black or
(iii) both are white.
Therefore X is a random variable that take the values,
X (both are black balls) = Rs. 2(30) = Rs. 60
X (one black and one white ball) = Rs. 30 − Rs. 20 = Rs. 10
X (both are white balls) = Rs. 2( − 20) = - Rs. 40
Therefore X takes on the values 60,10, and − 40.

Let us denote white and red balls as w₁, w₂, r₁, r₂ and r₃
The sample space consists of 5C₃ = 10 different samples of size 3.
That is S = \(\left\{w_{1} w_{2} r_{1}, w_{1} w_{2} r_{2}, w_{1} w_{2} r_{3}, w_{1} r_{1} r_{2}, w_{1} r_{2} r_{3}, w_{1} r_{1} r_{3}, w_{2} r_{1} r_{2}, w_{2} r_{2} r_{3}, w_{2} r_{1} r_{3}, r_{1} r_{2} r_{3}\right\} .\)
The random variable X takes on the values 1, 2, and 3.

Given \(f(x)=\begin{cases} \begin{matrix} kxe^{ -2x } & forx>0 \end{matrix} \\ \begin{matrix} 0 & for\quad x\le 0 \end{matrix} \end{cases}\)
Since the given function is a probability density function 
\(\int _{ -\infty }^{ \infty }{ f(x)dx } \) = 1 
\(\Rightarrow k\int _{ 0 }^{ \infty }{ { xe }^{ -2x }dx=1 } \)
\(\Rightarrow k \frac { 1! }{ \left( 2 \right) ^{ 2 } } =1\) 
[\(\int _{ 0 }^{ \infty }{ { x }^{ n }e^{ -ax } } =\frac { n! }{ { a }^{ +1 } } \), Here a = 2, n = 1]
\(\Rightarrow \frac { k }{ 4 } =1\\ \Rightarrow k=4\)

Let X be the random variable of number of tails when three coins tossed.
S = {HHH, HHT, THH, HTH, HTT, THT, TTH,TTT}
n(S) = 8
Let X denote the number of tarits occured.
X^-1 (0) {HHH} = 1
X^-1 (1) = {HHT, THT, HTH} = 3
X^-1 (2) =, {HTT, THT, TTH} = 3
X^-1 (3) = {TTT} = 1
ஃ X takes the values 0, 1, 2, 3.

Observe that the given distribution is continuous
By definition \(\mu =E(X)=\int _{ -\infty }^{ \infty }{ xf(x) } dx\) (We can also use integration by parts or Bernoulli’s formula) 
= \(\int _{ -\infty }^{ 0 }{ 0\left( \lambda { e }^{ -2x } \right) dx } +\int _{ 0 }^{ \infty }{ x\left( { \lambda e }^{ -\lambda x } \right) } dx\) 
= \(0+\lambda \int _{ 0 }^{ \infty }{ x\left( { e }^{ -\lambda x } \right) dx } \) 
=  \(0+\lambda \left( \frac { 1 }{ { \lambda }^{ 2 } } \right) \) (using Gamma integral for positive integer n,\(\int _{ 0 }^{ \infty }{ { x }^{ n } } { e }^{ -ax }dx=\cfrac { n }{ { a }^{ n+1 } } \))
= \(\frac { 1 }{ \lambda } \) 
Variance :
By definition,\(E\left( { X }^{ 2 } \right) =\int _{ -\infty }^{ \infty }{ { x }^{ 2 }f(x) } dx\) (We can also use integration by parts or Bernoulli’s formula) 
= \(\int _{ -\infty }^{ 0 }{ 0\left( \lambda { e }^{ -\lambda x } \right) } dx+\int _{ 0 }^{ \infty }{ { x }^{ 2 }\left( \lambda { e }^{ -2x } \right) } dx\) 
= \(0+\lambda \int _{ 0 }^{ \infty }{ { x }^{ 2 }\left( { e }^{ -2x } \right) dx } \)
 (using Gamma integral for positive integer)
Therefore Var(X ) = E(X² )- E(X )²
= \(\frac { 2 }{ { \lambda }^{ 2 } } -\left( \frac { 1 }{ \lambda } \right) ^{ 2 }=\frac { 1 }{ { \lambda }^{ 2 } } \) 
Hence the mean and variance are respectively \(\frac { 1 }{ \lambda } \)  and \(\frac { 1 }{ { \lambda }^{ 2 } } \)