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Download Tamil Nadu 10th Standard Social Science question papers, model tests, one-mark questions, important questions, and public exam papers in PDF format. Free study materials and answer keys for TN State Board students.

Questions:

Multiple Choice Question

100 x 1 = 100

Which is the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Agency?

(a)

SIPCOT

(b)

TANSIDCO

(c)

TIDCO

(d)

All of the above

SIPCOT was formed in the year _________.

(a)

1972

(b)

1976

(c)

1971

(d)

1978

A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is

(a)

Hosur

(b)

Dindigul

(c)

Kovilpatti

(d)

Tirunelveli

IT means ___________.

(a)

Indian Technology

(b)

Information Technology

(c)

Institute of Technology

(d)

Initiative Technology

Along with Ambur and Vaniyambadi ___________ is also a centre for leather goods exports.

(a)

Chennai

(b)

Sivakasi

(c)

Coimbatore

(d)

Madurai

Tiruppur is known for

(a)

Leather tanning

(b)

Lock making

(c)

Knitwear

(d)

Agro-processing

___________ are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.

(a)

agriculture

(b)

industry

(c)

railway

(d)

none of these

Tuticorin is known as ___________.

(a)

Gateway of India

(b)

Gateway of Tamil Nadu

(c)

Pump city

(d)

None of these

Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in

(a)

Salem

(b)

Coimbatore

(c)

Chennai

(d)

Dharampuri

10.

‘The Detroit of Asia’ is ___________.

(a)

Tuticorin

(b)

Coimbatore

(c)

Chennai

(d)

Madurai

11.

Payments are

(a)

Fees and fines

(b)

Penalties and forfeitures

(c)

None of the above

(d)

a and b

12.

Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by

(a)

Individuals

(b)

Corporations

(c)

Trusts

(d)

All of the above

13.

What are identified as causes of black money?

(a)

Shortage of goods

(b)

High tax rate

(c)

Smuggling

(d)

All of above

14.

__________ tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.

(a)

Income tax

(b)

wealth tax

(c)

Corporate tax

(d)

Excise duty

15.

Income tax was introduced in india for the first time in the year __________ .

(a)

1860

(b)

1870

(c)

1880

(d)

1850

16.

Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured?

(a)

Value added tax (VAT)

(b)

Income tax

(c)

Goods and service tax

(d)

Sales tax

17.

The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is

(a)

Service tax

(b)

Excise duty

(c)

Income tax

(d)

Central sales tax

18.

In India, taxes are including

(a)

Direct taxes

(b)

Indirect taxes.

(c)

Both (a) and (b)

(d)

None of these

19.

The three levels of governments in India are

(a)

Union, state and local

(b)

Central, state and village

(c)

Union, municipality and panchayat

(d)

None of the above

20.

Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in __________.

(a)

1980

(b)

1975

(c)

1955

(d)

1985

21.

__________ is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.

(a)

Kerala

(b)

Andhra Pradesh

(c)

Tamil Nadu

(d)

Karnataka

22.

__________ revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain production.

(a)

Blue Revolution

(b)

White Revolution

(c)

Green Revolution

(d)

Grey Revolution

23.

__________ extended assistance through its Public Law 480.

(a)

United States of America

(b)

India

(c)

Singapore

(d)

24.

Which is correct?.
i) HYV–High Yielding Varieties
ii) MSP–Minimum Support Price
iii) PDS–Public Distribution System
iv) FCI–Food Corporation of India

(a)

i and ii are correct

(b)

iii and iv are correct

(c)

ii and iii are correct

(d)

all are correct

25.

Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through the __________.

(a)

FCI

(b)

Consumer Co-operatives

(c)

ICICI

(d)

IFCI

26.

__________ of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which is a function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.

(a)

Availability of food

(b)

Access to food

(c)

Absorption of food

(d)

none

27.

Who drew up the borders for independent Pakistan?

(a)

Lord Mountbatten

(b)

Sir Cyril Radcliffe

(c)

Clement Atlee

(d)

None of the above.

28.

How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?

(a)

Five

(b)

Four

(c)

Three

(d)

Two

29.

Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?

(a)

Arunachal Pradesh

(b)

Meghalaya

(c)

Mizoram

(d)

Sikkim

30.

Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?

(a)

Sri Lanka and Andaman island

(b)

Maldives and Lakshadweep island

(c)

Maldives and Nicobar island

(d)

Sri Lanka and Maldives

31.

How many countries share its border with India?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

32.

With which country does India share its longest land border?

(a)

Bangladesh

(b)

Myanmar

(c)

Afghanistan

(d)

China

33.

OPEC is

(a)

An international insurance Co

(b)

An international sports club

(c)

An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries

(d)

An international company

34.

India is not a member of which of the following?
1) G20
2) ASEAN
3) SAARC
4) BRICS

(a)

2 only

(b)

2 and 4

(c)

2, 4 and 1

(d)

1, 2 and 3

35.

Mc Mahon Line is a border between

(a)

Burma and India

(b)

India and Nepal

(c)

India and China

(d)

India and Bhutan

36.

Non – military issues are

(a)

Energy security

(b)

Water security

(c)

Pandemics

(d)

All the above.

37.

Non - Alliance means

(a)

Being neutral

(b)

Freedom to decide on issues independently

(c)

Demilitarisation

(d)

None of the above

38.

Find the odd one

(a)

Social welfare

(b)

Health care

(c)

Diplomacy

(d)

Domestic affairs

39.

Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?

(a)

Yugoslavia

(b)

Indonesia

(c)

Egypt

(d)

Pakistan

40.

Which is not related to our foreign policy?

(a)

World co - operation

(b)

World peace

(c)

Racial equality

(d)

Colonialism

41.

The agreement signed by India and China in 1954 is related to

(a)

Trade and Commerce

(b)

Restoration of normal relations

(c)

Cultural exchange programmes

(d)

The five Principles of Co existence

42.

Apartheid is

(a)

An international association

(b)

Energy diplomacy

(c)

A policy of racial discrimination

(d)

None of these

43.

Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?

(a)

Article 50

(b)

Article 51

(c)

Article 52

(d)

Article 53

44.

The Panchasheel treaty has been signed between

(a)

India and Nepal

(b)

India and Pakistan

(c)

India and China

(d)

India and Sri Lanka

45.

Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?

(a)

Defense Minister

(b)

Prime Minister

(c)

External Affairs Minister

(d)

Home Minister

46.

Indian government was introduced ___________ in 1991

(a)

Globalization

(b)

World Trade Organisation

(c)

New Economic Policy

(d)

none

47.

Foreign Investment policy (FIP) announced in

(a)

June 1991

(b)

July 1991

(c)

July -Aug -1991

(d)

Aug 1991

48.

who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632

(a)

Jahangir

(b)

Sultan of Golconda

(c)

Akbar

(d)

Aurangzeb

49.

India signed the Dunkel proposal in

(a)

1984

(b)

1976

(c)

1950

(d)

1994

50.

GATT’s first round held in

(a)

Tokyo

(b)

Uruguay

(c)

Torquay

(d)

Geneva

51.

When did Portuguese colonize India?

(a)

1600 BC

(b)

1602 BC

(c)

1498 BC

(d)

1616 BC

52.

Who first came to India for trading purpose?

(a)

Roman Empire

(b)

Portuguese

(c)

Dutch

(d)

Danish

53.

Colonial advent in India

(a)

Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French

(b)

Dutch, English, Danish , French

(c)

Portuguese, Danish, Dutch, French, English

(d)

Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch

54.

How many countries were membership in WTO at present?

(a)

159

(b)

164

(c)

148

(d)

128

55.

Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)

(a)

Ministerial conference

(b)

Director General

(c)

Deputy Director General

(d)

None of these

56.

Indian economy is

(a)

Developing Economy

(b)

Emerging Economy

(c)

Dual Economy

(d)

All the above

57.

Which one is a trade policy?

(a)

irrigation policy

(b)

import and export policy

(c)

land-reform policy

(d)

wage policy

58.

India’s life expectancy at birth is ______ years.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

59.

India is ______ larger producer in agricultural product.

(a)

1^st

(b)

3^rd

(c)

4^th

(d)

2^nd

60.

Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at ______ lakh crore in 2018-19.

(a)

91.06

(b)

92.26

(c)

80.07

(d)

98.29

61.

Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP.

(a)

Agricultural sector

(b)

Industrial sector

(c)

Service sector

(d)

None of the above.

62.

______ approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the final good.

(a)

Expenditure approach

(b)

Value added approach

(c)

Income approach

(d)

National Income

63.

Primary sector consist of

(a)

Agriculture

(b)

Automobiles

(c)

Trade

(d)

Banking

64.

National Income is a measure of

(a)

Total value of money

(b)

Total value of producer goods

(c)

Total value of consumption goods

(d)

Total value of goods and services

65.

GNP equals

(a)

NNP adjusted for inflation

(b)

GDP adjusted for inflation

(c)

GDP plus net property income from abroad

(d)

NNP plus net property income or abroad

66.

Which of the following States have a common High Court?

(a)

Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

(b)

Kerala and Telangana

(c)

Punjab and Haryana

(d)

Maharashtra and Gujarat

67.

The High Courts in India were first started at

(a)

Calcutta, Bombay, Madras

(b)

Delhi and Calcutta

(c)

Delhi, Calcutta, Madras

(d)

Calcutta, Madras, Delhi

68.

Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?

(a)

Andhra Pradesh

(b)

Telangana

(c)

Tamil Nadu

(d)

Uttar Pradesh

69.

The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is

(a)

25 years

(b)

21 years

(c)

30 years

(d)

35 years

70.

The Legislative Council

(a)

Has a term of five years

(b)

Has a term of six years

(c)

Is a permanent house

(d)

Has a term of four years

71.

The State Council of Ministers is headed by

(a)

The Chief Minster

(b)

The Governor

(c)

The Speaker

(d)

The Prime Minister

72.

The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by

(a)

The State Legislature

(b)

The Governor

(c)

The President

(d)

The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly

73.

The Governor does not appoint

(a)

Chief Minister

(b)

Chairman of the State Public Service Commission

(c)

Advocate General of the State

(d)

Judges of the High Court

74.

Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative Assembly?

(a)

The President

(b)

The Governor

(c)

The Chief Minister

(d)

The Speaker of State legislature

75.

Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?

(a)

Legislative

(b)

Executive

(c)

Judicial

(d)

Diplomatic

76.

The Speaker of a State is a

(a)

Head of State

(b)

Head of government

(c)

President’s agent

(d)

None of these

77.

The Governor of the State is appointed by the

(a)

Prime Minister

(b)

Chief Minister

(c)

President

(d)

Chief Justice

78.

Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under:

(a)

Appellate Jurisdiction

(b)

Original Jurisdiction

(c)

Advisory Jurisdiction

(d)

None of these

79.

The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:

(a)

The President

(b)

The Attorney General

(c)

The Governor

(d)

The Prime Minister

80.

Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency

(a)

Article 352

(b)

Article 360

(c)

Article 356

(d)

Article 365

81.

The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?

(a)

The President

(b)

The Prime Minister

(c)

State Government

(d)

Parliament

82.

What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?

(a)

18 years

(b)

21 years

(c)

25 years

(d)

30 years

83.

The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?

(a)

Senior most member of Parliament

(b)

Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(c)

The President of India

(d)

The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

84.

The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:

(a)

The President

(b)

Lok Sabha

(c)

The Prime Minister

(d)

Rajya Sabha

85.

Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?

(a)

The President

(b)

Attorney General

(c)

Parliamentary Affairs Minister

(d)

Speaker of Lok Sabha

86.

Who is the real executive in a parliamentary type of government?

(a)

Army

(b)

The Prime Minister

(c)

The President

(d)

Judiciary

87.

The Constitutional Head of the Union is

(a)

The President

(b)

The Chief Justice

(c)

The Prime Minister

(d)

Council of Ministers

88.

Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State Relations?
1. Sarkaria Commission
2. Rajamannar Committee
3. M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a)

1, 2 & 3

(b)

1 & 2

(c)

1 & 3

(d)

2 & 3

89.

The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in

(a)

Article 352

(b)

Article 356

(c)

Article 360

(d)

Article 368

90.

Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?

(a)

Article 352

(b)

Article 356

(c)

Article 360

(d)

Article 368

91.

The Directive Principles can be classified into

(a)

Liberal and Communist principles

(b)

Socialist and Communist principles

(c)

Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles

(d)

Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

92.

We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the

(a)

American Constitution

(b)

Canadian Constitution

(c)

Russian Constitution

(d)

Irish Constitution

93.

How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?

(a)

If the Supreme Court so desires

(b)

If the Prime Minister orders to this effect

(c)

If the President orders it during the national emergency

(d)

All of the above

94.

Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?

(a)

Right to freedom of religion

(b)

Right to equality

(c)

Right to Constitutional remedies

(d)

Right to property

95.

If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to

(a)

The Parliament

(b)

The Attorney General

(c)

The President of India

(d)

The Supreme court of India

96.

Find the odd one out.

(a)

Right to Equality

(b)

Right against Exploitation

(c)

Right to Property

(d)

Cultural and Educational Rights

97.

A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through

(a)

Descent

(b)

Registration

(c)

Naturalisation

(d)

All of the above

98.

The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens

(a)

Double Citizenship

(b)

Single Citizenship

(c)

Single Citizenship in some States and double in others

(d)

None of the above

99.

How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?

(a)

Once

(b)

Twice

(c)

Thrice

(d)

Never

100.

Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?

(a)

Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign

(b)

Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic

(c)

Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic

(d)

Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic

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Answers Key:

Multiple Choice Question

100 x 1 = 100

(d)
All of the above

(a)
Hosur

(b)
Information Technology

(a)
Chennai

(b)
industry

(b)
Gateway of Tamil Nadu

(b)
Coimbatore

10.

11.

(a)
Fees and fines

12.

(d)
All of the above

13.

(d)
All of above

14.

(b)
wealth tax

15.

(a)
1860

16.

17.

18.

19.

(a)
Union, state and local

20.

(a)
1980

21.

22.

23.

(a)
United States of America

24.

(d)
all are correct

25.

(a)
FCI

26.

(a)
Availability of food

27.

(b)
Sir Cyril Radcliffe

28.

(a)
Five

29.

(a)
Arunachal Pradesh

30.

(d)
Sri Lanka and Maldives

31.

32.

(a)
Bangladesh

33.

34.

(a)
2 only

35.

36.

(d)
All the above.

37.

(b)
Freedom to decide on issues independently

38.

39.

(d)
Pakistan

40.

(d)
Colonialism

41.

(d)
The five Principles of Co existence

42.

43.

(b)
Article 51

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

(b)
Sultan of Golconda

49.

(d)
1994

50.

(d)
Geneva

51.

52.

(a)
Roman Empire

53.

(a)
Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French

54.

(b)
164

55.

(b)
Director General

56.

(a)
Developing Economy

57.

(b)
import and export policy

58.

(a)
65

59.

(d)
2^nd

60.

(b)
92.26

61.

62.

(b)
Value added approach

63.

(a)
Agriculture

64.

(d)
Total value of goods and services

65.

66.

67.

(a)
Calcutta, Bombay, Madras

68.

69.

70.

71.

(a)
The Chief Minster

72.

(b)
The Governor

73.

(d)
Judges of the High Court

74.

(b)
The Governor

75.

(d)
Diplomatic

76.

(d)
None of these

77.

78.

(b)
Original Jurisdiction

79.

(a)
The President

80.

(b)
Article 360

81.

(d)
Parliament

82.

83.

84.

(b)
Lok Sabha

85.

(d)
Speaker of Lok Sabha

86.

(b)
The Prime Minister

87.

(a)
The President

88.

(b)
1 & 2

89.

(d)
Article 368

90.

91.

(d)
Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

92.

93.

94.

95.

(d)
The Supreme court of India

96.

97.

98.

(b)
Single Citizenship

99.

(a)
Once

100.

(d)
Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic

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