CBSE 10th Social Science ECO - Sectors of the Indian Economy - New Model Questions Papers Study Material - QB365 Set A

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Questions:

Multiple Choice Question

80 x 1 = 80

identify the sector of economy with the help of given Information.
• It covers activities in which primary goods are used to produce some other commodity.
• This sector mainly includes services such as manufacturing, construction, gas, water electricity supply, etc.
• It produces more than half of the total country's output.
• The employees of this sector are less than half of the working population.

(a)

Primary sector

(b)

Secondary sector

(c)

Tertiary sector

(d)

None of these

Consider the statements given below and choose the Correct answer.
Statement I The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the sum of the value of final goods and services produced in only the primary sector of an economy.
Statement II The tertiary sector has replaced the secondary sector as the largest producing sector in most countries.

(a)

Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

(b)

Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

(c)

Both statements I and II are incorrect.

(d)

Both statements I and II are correct.

Mrs. X, a rural farmer experiencing declining productivity, seeks financial aid to enhance her agricultural activities. Opting for a bank loan, she aims for affordable funds at lower interest rates without risking her property or falling into a debt trap. Her choice priorities favorable repayment terms and interest-free periods during the loan tenure.
Which of the following statements best aligns with Mrs. X's reasons for choosing a bank loan to improve her agricultural activities?
(i) Accessibility to funds at lower interest rates Compared to other sources.
(ii) Freedom from falling into a debt trap due to favorable repayment terms.
(iii) Avoidance of being coerced to sell her property to secure the loan.
(iv) No interest payment requirements during the repayment period.

(a)

Only (i)

(b)

(ii) and (iv)

(c)

(i) and (ii)

(d)

Only (ii)

Fill in the blank.
Sector Criteria Used
Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Nature of Economic Activity
Organised and Unorganised ?

(a)

Nature of Employment Activities

(b)

Nature of Social Activities

(c)

Nature of Production Activities

(d)

Nature of Political Activities

Consider the following statements about GDP of a country.
(i) Purchase ofsugarcane in the making of sugar.
(ii) Value of silk fabrics for sale in the market.
(iii) Final value of bakery items.
Which of the following statements should be added to find out GDP?

(a)

Only (i) and (ii)

(b)

Only (i) and (iii)

(c)

Only (ii) and (iii)

(d)

None as all are intermediate goods

Arrange in sequence.
I. Making of Khoya
II. Buying of sweets during Diwali
III Extraction of milk
IV. Displaying sweets in showcase

(a)

IV, I, III, II

(b)

III, I, IV, II

(c)

I, II, IV, III

(d)

II, III, I, IV

Hari, son of a farmer, after studying from Agricultural University, has become a research scientist and undertakes work for developing hybrid oil seeds. Analyse the information to know the sector in which he has shifted from past to present.

(a)

From tertiary to primary

(b)

From secondary to primary

(c)

From primary to tertiary

(d)

From primary to secondary

A flower cultivator grows tulips, reaps a good crop and sells it to a trader. The trader exports the tulips and earns huge profit. This increased the GDP but the farmer is still not able to earn well. Why?

(a)

Most of the profit is taken by trader.

(b)

Farmer is underemployed or disguised employed.

(c)

Farmers, traders, exporters work in unorganised sector.

(d)

All of the above

The table given below highlights the percentage of workers in the three sectors of the economy In India. The data for the year 2023 has actual figures while the data for 2040 Is hypothetical based on the published figures of the year 2023. Any of the three hypothetical scenarios could be possible in the year 2040.
Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow

Based on the information given in the table, which of the following statements is likely to be correct?

(a)

In scenarios l and 2, the secondary sector will need the least workers.

(b)

In scenario 2, India will become a major services-based economy.

(c)

The primary sector in scenario 2 will be the highest contributor to the GDP of the country.

(d)

In scenarios 1 and 3, maximum employment opportunities will be created in the secondary sector.

10.

If there is a disruption by transporters and lorries refuse to transport vegetables, milk, etc. from rural areas to urban areas, food will become scarce in urban areas, whereas farmers will be unable to sell their products.
Which of the following sectors will be affected due to this situation stated above?

(a)

Primary and Secondary

(b)

Secondary and Tertiary

(c)

Tertiary, Primary and Secondary

(d)

Tertiary and Primary.

11.

What is the rationale behind the classification of economic activities into various sectors, such as primary, secondary, and tertiary, based on their nature and operations?

(a)

It helps in creating distinctions between various economic activities and ensures each sector focuses on a specific type of production.

(b)

It helps us sort activities into groups, making it easier to understand their roles in the economy and how they rely on each other.

(c)

It limits the growth of certain sectors, focusing primarily on the development of others.

(d)

It encourages competition among sectors, resulting in a disparity in the distribution of resources and services.

12.

"The Challenge of Under employment and Sectoral Evolution in India"
In a recent study conducted by the Central Government Ministry, it was revealed that despite the surgo In the tertiary sector's dominance, underemployment remains a significant issue across various sectors of the Indian economy.
Source: Economic Times
Given this scenario, should the government introduce targeted policies to address underemployment in a specific sectors?

(a)

Yes, focusing on the primary sector by enhancing agricultural productivity and creating opportunities for small-scale industries in rural areas can mitigate underemployment.

(b)

Yes, the government should priorities schemes like MGNREGA 2005 to guarantee minimum days of wage employment to rural households, thereby curbing underemployment

(c)

No, the evolution of the tertiary sector indicates a natural progression in economic growth, and addressing underemployment might disrupt this trajectory

(d)

No, underemployment is a temporary phase and does not warrant immediate intervention as long as the GDP continues to rise.

13.

Which of the following provisions have been made under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act-2005?

(a)

Government ensures 100 days of employment for all residents.

(b)

Government ensures 200 days of employment for all rural residents.

(c)

Government provides grains in exchange of work in rural areas.

(d)

Government provides unemployment allowance to the beneficiaries in case of failure to provide employment.

14.

Find the incorrect option.

(a)

Public Sector - Labour working under contractor

(b)

Tertiary sector - Owner of a play school

(c)

Unoganised sector -5 people working in a local dhaba

(d)

Private sector - A company producing electric equipment

15.

'A' is a worker in a garment export industry of Jaipur. He gets facilities like health insurance, provident fund, medical leave, etc. In which one of the following sectors is 'A' working?

(a)

Primary sector

(b)

Tertiary sector

(c)

Organised sector

(d)

Unorganised sector

16.

The sum total of production of all goods and services in the three sectors are combinedly called as

(a)

NDP

(b)

(c)

GNI

(d)

GDP

17.

The goods that are used as raw materials for further production are known by which name?

(a)

Final goods

(b)

Consumer goods

(c)

Material goods

(d)

Intermediate goods

18.

The products received by exploiting natural resources come under which one of the following sectors?

(a)

Quaternary

(b)

Tertiary

(c)

Secondary

(d)

Primary

19.

Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms come under which one of the following sectors?

(a)

Primary

(b)

Secondary

(c)

Tertiary

(d)

Quaternary

20.

At the initial stages of development, which one of the following sectors was the most important of economic activity?

(a)

Primary

(b)

Secondary

(c)

Tertiary

(d)

Quaternary

21.

'X' lives in a town. He cultivates flowers along with animal husbandry. The work of 'X' will fall under which sector of the economy?

(a)

Primary

(b)

Secondary

(c)

Tertiary

(d)

Quaternary

22.

Primary, Secondary and Tertiary sectors are divided in which one of the following basis?

(a)

Nature of employment

(b)

Nature of activities

(c)

Nature of ownership

(d)

Nature of income

23.

In Indian Economy, the three sectors (Primary, Secondary and Tertiary) are interdependent. However, the share of employment in the primary sector remains high. Most appropriate explanation for this could be.
(i) Government policies preferentially treat the primary sector.
(ii) Indian economy is largely agrarian and majority of population is dependent on agriculture.
(iii) Inadequate service sector jobs force people to Continue working in primary sectors.
(iv) Primary sector provides raw material for the secondary and tertiary sector.

(a)

Only (i) and (ii) are true

(b)

Only (ii) and (iii) are true

(c)

Only (iii) and (iv) are true

(d)

All are true

24.

All economic activities that directly involve conversion of natural resources are classified under

(a)

Secondary sector

(b)

Primary sector

(c)

Tertiary sector

(d)

Government sector

25.

Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process, is an activity in_____sector.

(a)

Primary

(b)

Secondary

(c)

Tertiary

(d)

Information technology

26.

ldentify the primary reason responsible for the success of federalism in India. Choose from the appropriate statements among the following options
I Constitutional provisions are the only one necessary for the success of federalism.
lI. The real success of federalism in India can be attributed to the nature of democratic politics in Our country.
III. India follows the true spirit of federalism.
IV. The formation of linguistic states made India more united and administration became easier.

(a)

Statements II and IV are appropriate

(b)

Statements I, II and II are appropriate.

(c)

All the statements are appropriate.

(d)

All the statements are appropriate.

27.

Which of the following statements accurately describes decentralisation of powers in India?
I. It helps to address several problems and issues at the local level itself.
II. It is autocratic in nature.
III. It has made the third tier of democracy more powerful and effective.
IV. It has deteriorated the functioning of democratic governments.

(a)

Only I

(b)

Only II

(c)

Both I and III

(d)

Only IV

28.

Read the following statements regarding the creation of States on the basis of language in India and choose the correct options.
I. Formation of states on the basis of language made the country more united and stronger.
II. Formation of states on the basis of language made administration easier.
III. Formation of states on the basis of language has weakened the federal structure.
IV. Formation of states on the basis of language led to the development of Indian languages.

(a)

Only I, II and III are correct.

(b)

Only II, III and IV are correct.

(c)

Only I, II and IV are correct.

(d)

Only I, III and IV are correct.

29.

ldentify the correct statement/s about the theory of federalism in the Indian Constitution
(i) The Constitution declared India as a Union of States.
(ii) Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State Governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution.
(iii) It is easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement.
(iv) The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement.

(a)

(i) and (ii)

(b)

(ii) and (iii)

(c)

(i) and (iii)

(d)

(ii) and (iv)

30.

Arrange in sequence according to the occurrence of the events
(i) States on the basis of language created.
(ii) Rise of regional political parties leading to coalitions.
(iii) India's journey as a democracy begins.
(iv) Central Government agrees to continue the use of English.

(a)

(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

(b)

(iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

(c)

(i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

(d)

(iv), (i), (iii), (ii)

31.

Identify the system of Indian Government from the given information.
• In this system, powers are divided between the National Government and the Regional Governments
• In this both Centre and State Government enjoy their power independent of each other.
• System of Government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country

(a)

Federal system

(b)

Unitary System

(c)

Parliamentary system

(d)

None ofthe above

32.

What happens when laws regarding Concurrent List are in conflict between the Union and State Government? ldentify the appropriate reason.

(a)

If their laws conflict with each other, then the law made by the President of India will prevail.

(b)

If their laws conflict with each other, then the law made by the Union Government will prevail.

(c)

If their laws conflict with each other, then the law made by the state government will prevail.

(d)

If their laws conflict with each other, then the law made by the local governments will prevail.

33.

Consider the statements given below and choose the Correct answer.
Statement I All the Panchayat Samities or Mandals in a district together constitute the Zilla Parishad. Most members of the Zilla Parishad are elected.
Statement Il Members of Lok Sabha and MLA of that district and some other officials of the other District Level bodies are also its members.

(a)

Statement I is correct and IIis incorrect.

(b)

Statement I is incorrect and II is correct.

(c)

Both I and II are incorrect.

(d)

Both I and II are correct.

34.

In Indian states, different communities are engaged in conflict over the issue of language. The tensions further lead to a demand from communities for a national language to be made from their region only. What is the best resolution to this situation?

(a)

Delaying the demand of providing status of national language to a regional language.

(b)

Indian Constitution must provide the status of national language to any of the languages.

(c)

Indian Constitution must not give the status of national language to any of the languages.

(d)

A foreign language like English must be given the status of a national language.

35.

Which of the following is a definite indicator of the successful implementation of Federalism in India?

(a)

Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution and the powers of different levels of Government.

(b)

The authority of each tier of Government is not constitutionally guaranteed.

(c)

A system of Government which didn't have mutual trust and agreement to live together.

(d)

Both (b) and (c)

36.

Mr. X is appearing in an examination conducted for the recruitment to Central Government positions. In how many languages as mentioned in the Eighth schedule can he opt to take the exam?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

37.

The states such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special powers under certain provisions of the Constitution of India. What is the context under which they do get these provisions?

(a)

Trade and commerce purposes

(b)

Defense purposes

(c)

Protection ofland rights of indigenous people

(d)

Special provisions for agricultural purposes

38.

The creation of linguistic states was the first and a major test for democratic politics in our country. Many old states have vanished and many new states have been created. Areas, boundaries and names of the states have been changed. Which of the following statements related to the four reactions to the language policy followed in India is true?

(a)

Language based states have divided us by making everyone conscious of their language.

(b)

The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity.

(c)

The language policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over all other language.

(d)

It has created conflict of ideologies.

39.

Choose the correct option related to Union list.

(a)

Police, Foreign affairs, Agriculture

(b)

Trade, Irrigation, Marriage

(c)

Education, Commerce, Banking

(d)

Currency, Communication, Defence

40.

Choose the most appropriate option regarding the division of legislative rights in India.

(a)

Union List - Defence and Commerce

(b)

State - List - Police and Agriculture

(c)

Concurrent List - Forest and Communication

(d)

Residuary Subjects - Computer Software and Trade

41.

Which of the following is responsible for resolving disputes between Centre and States?

(a)

Finance Commission of India

(b)

Supreme Court of India

(c)

President of India

(d)

Prime Minister of India

42.

In which one of the following institution in India was a system of reservation for women made by amending the Constitution in 1992?

(a)

LokSabha

(b)

RajyaSabha

(c)

Legislative Council

(d)

Panchayat

43.

Which one of the following subjects is included in the State list?

(a)

Banking

(b)

Business

(c)

Currency

(d)

Communication

44.

Which one of the following subjects is included in the Union list?

(a)

Communication

(b)

Trade

(c)

Commerce

(d)

Irrigation

45.

Which one of the following countries is the example of 'Holding together federation

(a)

Australia

(b)

India

(c)

USA

(d)

Switzerland

46.

identify the correct feature of Unitary form of government from the following options.

(a)

There are two or more levels of government.

(b)

Different tiers of government govern the same citizens

(c)

Each tier of government has its own jurisdiction.

(d)

The sub-units are sub-ordinate to the Central Government.

47.

In Unitary form of government,

(a)

all the power is divided between the centre/union and the state provincial government.

(b)

all the power is with the citizens.

(c)

State Government has all the powers.

(d)

power is concentrated with the Central Government.

48.

Which country is an example of coming together federation?

(a)

Belgium

(b)

USA

(c)

Sri Lanka

(d)

India

49.

A system of government in which power is divided between a central authority and various constituent unit of the country is called

(a)

Federalism

(b)

Communalism

(c)

Socialism

(d)

Democracy

50.

Which countries follow the unitary system of government?

(a)

Belgium, Spain and India

(b)

USA, Japan and Belgium

(c)

Saudi Arabia, China and Sri Lanka

(d)

France, Germany and India

51.

Which type of government doesthe Belgium have?

(a)

Federal

(b)

Communist

(c)

Unitary

(d)

Unitary

52.

Identify the correct option that describes the act given below.
(i) The act was passed by was lmperial Legislative Council.
(ii) It gave power to the government to repress political activities.
(iii) lt empowered the government to detain political prisoners without trial.

(a)

Rowlatt Act

(b)

Vernacular Press Act

(c)

Government of India Act

(d)

Inland Emigration Act

53.

ldentify the movement with the help of given information.
(i) The movement was launched to attain 'Purna Swaraj' or complete Independence.
(ii) It was launched in 1930 by Gandhiji.
(iii) The movement was aimed at breaking certain laws like the Salt Laws.
(iv) The movement was started from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi.

(a)

Non-Cooperation Movemnent

(b)

Civil Disobedience Movement

(c)

Khilafat Movement

(d)

Quit India Movement

54.

Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer.
Statement I In his famous book Hind Swaraj (1909) Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India with the cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of this cooperation.
Statement lI Gandhiji proposed that the Non-Cooperation Movement should unfold in stages.

(a)

Statement I is correct and II is incorrect

(b)

Statement I is incorrect and Il is correct

(c)

Both I and ll are incorrect

(d)

Both I and II are correct

55.

After arriving in India, Mahatma Gandhi successfully organised satyagraha movements in various places. Choose from the appropriate statements among the following options
I. In 1917, he travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.
II. In 1917,he organised a satyagraha to support the peasants of the Kheda district of Gujarat.
IIl. Affected by crop failure and a plague epidemic, the peasants of Kheda could not pay the revenue, and were demanding that revenue collection be relaxed.
IV. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi went to Ahmedabad to organise a satyagraha movement amongst cotton
mill workers.

(a)

Statements I and Il are appropriate.

(b)

Statements I, II and lIl are appropriate.

(c)

All the statenments are appropriate.

(d)

Only statement iv is appropriate.

56.

What is correct in context of Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
I. Being from outside the city, all villagers were aware of the martial law that had been imposed.
II. Only men to protest against the government's new repressive measures.
III. On 13th April, the infamous Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place.
IV. On that day a large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwalla Bagh.

(a)

Only I

(b)

III and IV

(c)

I and II

(d)

Only II

57.

Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option.
I. Second Round Table Conference
II. Simon Commission arrives in India
III. Beginning of Dandi March
IV. Incident of Chauri-Chaura

(a)

I, II, III and IV

(b)

IV, II, III and I

(c)

IV, II, Iand IIl

(d)

I, II, IV and III

58.

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option.
I. Establishment of Depressed Classes Association
II. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
III. Formation of the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)
IV. Second Round Table Conference in London.

(a)

I, II, III, IV

(b)

II, I, III, IV

(c)

I, IV, III, II

(d)

I, II, III, IV

59.

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option.
I. Formation of Khilafat Committee in Bombay
Il. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
III. Bardoli Satyagraha
IV. Withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement

(a)

I, II, II, IV

(b)

II, I, IV, III

(c)

I, II, IV, III

(d)

III, IV, II, I

60.

Arrange the following events of Indian National Movement in chronological order and choose the correct option.
I. Formation of Swaraj Party
II. Lahore session of the Indian National Congress
III. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
IV. Formation of Depressed Class Association

(a)

II, III, I, IV

(b)

I, II, IV, III

(c)

I, III, IV, IV

(d)

IV, III, II, I

61.

Why did nationalists in late-nineteenth-century India focus on recording and preserving folklore?

(a)

To create new forms of artistic expression that reflected modern India.

(b)

To restore a sense of pride in traditional culture and national identity.

(c)

To use folklore as a tool for economic development and modernisation.

(d)

To promote a uniform culture that could be adopted across all Indian regions.

62.

How was the Rowlatt Act of 1919 perceived in terms of fundamental rights and civil liberties by Indians?

(a)

It was viewed as a regressive legislation in favour of the majority Indians.

(b)

It was considered as severely curtailing the right to personal liberty.

(c)

It was seen as a necessary measure to prevent communal tensions.

(d)

It was regarded as a safeguard for protecting British soldiers.

63.

Identify the correct option that describes the movement given below.
The movement broke colonial laws and also refused cooperation with the British.

(a)

Rowlatt Satyagraha Movement

(b)

Civil Disobedience Movement

(c)

Non-Cooperation Movement

(d)

Quit India Movement

64.

Mahatma Gandhi relaunched the Civil Disobedience Movement, for over a year, the movement continued, but by 1934 it lost its momentum. Which of the following events prompted Mahatma Gandhi to relaunch the Civil Disobedience Movement?

(a)

The release of political prisoners following the Round Table Conference.

(b)

The breakdown of negotiations at the Round Table Conference and the subsequent repression by the British government.

(c)

The growing support for the Congress and its policies.

(d)

The failure of the British government to implement the recommendations of the Simon Commission.

65.

The Congress Working Committee, in its meeting, in Wardha on 14th July, 1942, passed the historic 'Quit India' resolution demanding the immediate transfer of power to Indians and Quit India. How did the British government respond to the Quit India Movement?

(a)

They welcomed the movement and offered to negotiate with Indian leaders.

(b)

They used force to suppers the movement and arrested thousands of people

(c)

They ignored the movement and allowed it to continue inhindered.

(d)

They sympathised with the movement and offered to grant India independence.

66.

After the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement, two distinct approaches emerged within the Congress. Which of the following accurately reflects these contrasting views?

(a)

CR Das and Motilal Nehru advocated for boycott of all British institutions and focus on radical mass agitation.

(b)

Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose supported participation in provincial councils to oppose British policies from within.

(c)

Gandhi and the older Congress leadership were divided over the use of violence in the movement, eventually leading to a split.

(d)

Younger leaders wanted immediate independence while the older generation preferred gradual reforms.

67.

'The Salt Satyagraha March, also known as the Dandi March of 1930, was a landmark event in the history of India's freedom struggle. As part of the Civil
Disobedience Movement against the British rule, satyagrahis led by Gandhi marched from the Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad to the coastal village of Dandi from 12th March to 5th April, 1930 and made salt from seawater, breaking the Salt Law imposed by the British."
Source: The Economic Times
What did Mahatma Gandhi declare about the tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production during British rule?

(a)

Gandhiji supported the tax on salt as a necessary source of revenue.

(b)

Gandhiji believed that salt was not essential for the people.

(c)

Gandhiji declared that the tax on salt revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.

(d)

Gandhiji argued for the expansion of the government monopoly on salt production.

68.

The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in January, 1921. Various social groups participated in this movement, each with its own specific aspiration.
Which quote reflects the anti-imperialist sentiment that prevailed among many Indians during the Non-Cooperation Movement?

(a)

"The British Empire is a fraud and a sham. It is built on force and injustice. We mush cooperate with it in any way"

(b)

"Swaraj (self-rule) is not merely political independence. It is much more than that. It is the regeneration of Indian society. It is the purification of Indian society."

(c)

" We must not only boycott British goods, but we must also boycott British institutions, such as schools and courts. We must build our own institutions, based on our own principles."

(d)

"Swaraj (self-rule) is my birthright, and I shall bave it."

69.

Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj Party from the option given below.

(a)

It wanted members of Congress to return to Council politics.

(b)

It wanted members of Congress to ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians.

(c)

It wanted members of Congress to oppose Simon Commission.

(d)

It wanted members of Congress to ask Dominion State for India.

70.

Find the incorrect option.

(a)

Simon Commission was constituted under John Simon.

(b)

'Oudh Kisan Sabha' was headed by Mahatma Gandhi.

(c)

In Awadh, the Peasant Movement developed under the leadership of Baba Ramchandra.

(d)

In 1921, Gandhijihad designed a tricolour Swaraj Flag.

71.

Find the incorrect option

(a)

Mahatma Gandhi return to India from South Africa in 1918.

(b)

In 1918, Gandhiji went to Ahmedabad to organise a Satyagrahi Movement.

(c)

Khilafat Movement was started in 1921.

(d)

Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13th April, 1919.

72.

Who himself took interest to revive folklore in West Bengal?

(a)

Rabindranath Tagore

(b)

Bankim Chandra Chatopadhyay

(c)

Abanindranath Tagore

(d)

All of the above

73.

With the growth of nationalism, who created the image of Bharat Mata in the 20th century?

(a)

Nand Lal Bose

(b)

Abanindranath Tagore

(c)

Rabindranath Tagore

(d)

Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

74.

In Awadh, peasants were led by which sanyasi who had earlier been to Fiji, as an indentured labourer?

(a)

Baba Ramdev

(b)

Baba Nagarjuna

(c)

Baba Ramchandra

(d)

Baba Parmanand

75.

Which province did not boycott the council election?

(a)

Madras

(b)

Ahmedabad

(c)

Hyderabad

(d)

Lucknow

76.

Who among the following led the peasant movement in Bardoli, in 1928?

(a)

Baba Ramchandra

(b)

Jawaharlal Nehru

(c)

Subhash Chandra Bose

(d)

Vallabhbhai Patel

77.

When was the Non-cooperation and Khilafat Movement begin in India?

(a)

January 1919

(b)

January 1921

(c)

February 1920

(d)

February 1922

78.

Gandhiji organised a Satyagraha to support the peasants of the kheda district of Gujarat in ________.

(a)

1915

(b)

1916

(c)

1917

(d)

1918

79.

According to the census of 1921, 12 to 13 million people perished in India as a result of _________.

(a)

Famines

(b)

Epidemic

(c)

First World War

(d)

Both (a) and (b

80.

In India, the growth of modern nationalism in intimately connected to the _________.

(a)

Western education

(b)

Awarness of people

(c)

Anti-colonial movement

(d)

None of the above

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80 x 1 = 80

(b)
Secondary sector

(a)
Nature of Employment Activities

(b)
III, I, IV, II

(d)
All of the above

10.

11.

(b)
It helps us sort activities into groups, making it easier to understand their roles in the economy and how they rely on each other.

12.

(b)
Yes, the government should priorities schemes like MGNREGA 2005 to guarantee minimum days of wage employment to rural households, thereby curbing underemployment

13.

(d)
Government provides unemployment allowance to the beneficiaries in case of failure to provide employment.

14.

(a)
Public Sector - Labour working under contractor

15.

16.

(d)
GDP

17.

(d)
Intermediate goods

18.

(d)
Primary

19.

(b)
Secondary

20.

(a)
Primary

21.

(a)
Primary

22.

(b)
Nature of activities

23.

(b)
Only (ii) and (iii) are true

24.

25.

(a)
Primary

26.

(a)
Statements II and IV are appropriate

27.

28.

29.

(a)
(i) and (ii)

30.

(b)
(iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

31.

(a)
Federal system

32.

(b)
If their laws conflict with each other, then the law made by the Union Government will prevail.

33.

(d)
Both I and II are correct.

34.

35.

(a)
Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution and the powers of different levels of Government.

36.

(b)
22

37.

38.

(b)
The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity.

39.

(d)
Currency, Communication, Defence

40.

(b)
State - List - Police and Agriculture

41.

(b)
Supreme Court of India

42.

(d)
Panchayat

43.

(b)
Business

44.

(a)
Communication

45.

(b)
India

46.

(d)
The sub-units are sub-ordinate to the Central Government.

47.

(d)
power is concentrated with the Central Government.

48.

(b)
USA

49.

(a)
Federalism

50.

51.

(a)
Federal

52.

(a)
Rowlatt Act

53.

(b)
Civil Disobedience Movement

54.

(d)
Both I and II are correct

55.

56.

(b)
III and IV

57.

(b)
IV, II, III and I

58.

(d)
I, II, III, IV

59.

60.

(b)
I, II, IV, III

61.

(b)
To restore a sense of pride in traditional culture and national identity.

62.

(b)
It was considered as severely curtailing the right to personal liberty.

63.

(b)
Civil Disobedience Movement

64.

(b)
The breakdown of negotiations at the Round Table Conference and the subsequent repression by the British government.

65.

(b)
They used force to suppers the movement and arrested thousands of people

66.

(d)
Younger leaders wanted immediate independence while the older generation preferred gradual reforms.

67.

68.

(a)
"The British Empire is a fraud and a sham. It is built on force and injustice. We mush cooperate with it in any way"

69.

(a)
It wanted members of Congress to return to Council politics.

70.

(b)
'Oudh Kisan Sabha' was headed by Mahatma Gandhi.

71.

(a)
Mahatma Gandhi return to India from South Africa in 1918.

72.

(a)
Rabindranath Tagore

73.

(d)
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

74.

75.

(a)
Madras

76.

(d)
Vallabhbhai Patel

77.

(b)
January 1921

78.

79.

(d)
Both (a) and (b

80.

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