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All Chapter 1 mark Impatant Question

10th Standard EM

    Reg.No. :
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Science

Time : 03:00:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 100
    100 x 1 = 100
  1. Inertia of a body depends on 

    (a)

    weight of the object

    (b)

    acceleration due to gravity of the planet

    (c)

    mass of the object

    (d)

    Both a & b

  2. The unit of ‘g’ is m s-2. It can be also expressed as

    (a)

    cm s-1

    (b)

    N kg-1

    (c)

    N m2 kg-1

    (d)

    cm2 s-2

  3. The physical quantity which is the measure of inertia is _______

    (a)

    density

    (b)

    weight

    (c)

    force

    (d)

    mass

  4. You're riding a bike when suddenly you hit a large rock. The bike stops moving but you fly over the handle - bars. This is an example of ______

    (a)

    Newton's I law

    (b)

    Newton's II law

    (c)

    Newton's III law

    (d)

    Law of conservation

  5. Magnification of a convex lens is

    (a)

    Positive

    (b)

    negative

    (c)

    either positive or negative

    (d)

    zero

  6. If VB, VG, VR be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following statement gives the correct relation?

    (a)

    VB = VG = VR

    (b)

    VB > VG >VR

    (c)

    VB < VG < VR

    (d)

    VB < VG > VR

  7. An object is placed 25 cm from a convex lens whose focal length is 10 cm. The image distance is _______ cm.

    (a)

    50

    (b)

    16.66

    (c)

    6.66

    (d)

    10

  8. Simple microscope consists of

    (a)

    Short focal length convex

    (b)

    Large focal length of concave

    (c)

    Short focal length of concave

    (d)

    Large focal length of convex

  9. If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is

    (a)

    positive

    (b)

    negative

    (c)

    zero

    (d)

    none of the above

  10. In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is

    (a)

    A\(\leftarrow\)B, A\(\leftarrow\)C, B\(\leftarrow\)C

    (b)

    A\(\rightarrow\)B, A\(\rightarrow\)C, B\(\rightarrow\)C

    (c)

    A\(\rightarrow\)B, A\(\leftarrow\)C, B\(\rightarrow\)C

    (d)

    A\(\leftarrow\)B, A\(\rightarrow\)C, B\(\leftarrow\)C

  11. At what temperature are Celsius and Fahrenheit equal

    (a)

    40°

    (b)

    -40°

    (c)

    00

    (d)

    100°

  12. Charles's law is also called as ______

    (a)

    the law of temperature

    (b)

    the law of pressure

    (c)

    the law of volume

    (d)

    the law of gas

  13. Which of the following is correct?

    (a)

    Rate of change of charge is electrical power

    (b)

    Rate of change of charge is current.

    (c)

    Rate of change of energy is current.

    (d)

    Rate of change of current is charge.

  14. SI unit of resistance is

    (a)

    mho

    (b)

    joule

    (c)

    ohm

    (d)

    ohm meter

  15. Give the name of components which is designed to oppose the flow of current.

    (a)

    Capacitor

    (b)

    Resistors

    (c)

    Fuse wire

    (d)

    Inductor

  16. What happens when ammeter connected in parallel?

    (a)

    Open circuited

    (b)

    Closed Circuited

    (c)

    Short circuited

    (d)

    None of the above

  17. When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles

    (a)

    vibrate along the direction of the wave motion

    (b)

    vibrate but not in any fixed direction

    (c)

    vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion

    (d)

    do not vibrate

  18. Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 m s-1. If the pressure is increased by 4 times without causing a change in the temperature, the velocity of sound in the gas is

    (a)

    330 m s-1

    (b)

    660 m s-1

    (c)

    165 ms-1

    (d)

    990 ms-1

  19. Before playing guitar, guitarist adjust the tension and pluck the string. By doing so, he is adjusting.

    (a)

    intensity of sound only

    (b)

    amplitude

    (c)

    frequency

    (d)

    loudness of sound

  20. Sound travels with a speed of 330 ms-1. What is the wavelength of sound whose frequency is 550 Hz?

    (a)

    0.6 m

    (b)

    0.7 m

    (c)

    0.4 m

    (d)

    0.2 m

  21. Man-made radioactivity is also known as

    (a)

    Induced radioactivity

    (b)

    Spontaneous radioactivity

    (c)

    Artificial radioactivity

    (d)

    a & c

  22. In which of the following, no change in mass number of the daughter nuclei takes place 
    (i) \(\alpha\) decay,
    (ii)\(\beta\) decay,
    (iii) \(\gamma \) decay,
    (iv) neutron decay

    (a)

    (i) is correct

    (b)

    (ii) and (iii) are correct

    (c)

    (i) & ( iv) are correct

    (d)

    (ii) & (iv) are correct

  23. In controlled chain reactions, the number of fission producing neutron is ___________

    (a)

    indefinite

    (b)

    finite and a variable

    (c)

    a constant

    (d)

    iodine

  24. _________ are used to control the chain reaction.

    (a)

    Control rods

    (b)

    Moderators

    (c)

    Coolants

    (d)

    Neutron source

  25. Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?

    (a)

    Glucose

    (b)

    Helium

    (c)

    Carbon dioxide

    (d)

    Hydrogen

  26. In the nucleus of 20Ca40, there are 

    (a)

    20 protons and 40 neutrons

    (b)

    20 protons and 20 neutrons

    (c)

    20 protons and 40 electrons

    (d)

    40 protons and 20 electrons

  27. Atomicity of Chlorine and Neon is

    (a)

    Mono atomic and mono atomic

    (b)

    Mono atomic and diatomic

    (c)

    Diatomic and diatomic

    (d)

    Diatomic and mono atomic

  28. The formula of a chloride of a metal M is MCl3 the formula of the phosphate of metal Mwill be:

    (a)

    MPO4

    (b)

    M2PO4

    (c)

    M3PO4

    (d)

    2 (PO4)3

  29. The process of coating the surface of metal with a thin layer of zinc is called______.

    (a)

    painting

    (b)

    thinning

    (c)

    galvanization

    (d)

    electroplating

  30. Which of the following have inert gases 2 electrons in the outermost shell

    (a)

    He

    (b)

    Ne

    (c)

    Ar

    (d)

    Kr

  31. Pottassium belongs to ________ period

    (a)

    First

    (b)

    Second

    (c)

    Third

    (d)

    Fourth

  32. Electronegativity values of Na and CI are 0.9 and 3.0 respectively predict the nature of bonding.

    (a)

    Ionic

    (b)

    Covalent

    (c)

    Coordinate

    (d)

    Metallic

  33. A solution is a __________ mixture.

    (a)

    homogeneous

    (b)

    heterogeneous

    (c)

    homogeneous and heterogeneous

    (d)

    non homogeneous

  34. Which of the following is hygroscopic in nature?

    (a)

    ferric chloride

    (b)

    copper sulphate penta hydrate

    (c)

    silica gel

    (d)

    none of the above

  35. In exothermic process as the temperature increases, solubility of the salt is _____________

    (a)

    decreases

    (b)

    increases

    (c)

    no change

    (d)

    increase and then remains constant

  36. Which of the following is a dehydrating agent (absorbs moistone)

    (a)

    sodium hydroxide

    (b)

    anhydrous calcium chloride

    (c)

    sugar

    (d)

    None of these

  37. Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by

    (a)

    heat

    (b)

    electricity

    (c)

    light

    (d)

    mechanical energy

  38. Which of the following statements are correct about a chemical equilibrium?
    (i) It is dynamic in nature
    (ii) The rate of the forward and backward reactions are equal at equilibrium
    (iii) Irreversible reactions do not attain chemical equilibrium
    ​​​​​​(iv) ​The concentration of reactants and products may be different

    (a)

     i, ii and iii

    (b)

    i, ii and iv

    (c)

    ii, iii and iv

    (d)

    i, iii and iv

  39. Which of the following information is not conveyed by a balanced chemical equation?

    (a)

    Physical states of reactants and products

    (b)

    Symbols and chemicals formula of reactants and products

    (c)

    Number of atoms / molecules of the reactants and products formed

    (d)

    Feasibilityof a chemical reaction

  40. Ionic product of water is expressed

    (a)

    Kw = [Hp+] [OH-]

    (b)

    Kw = [H+] [OH-]

    (c)

    both (a) and (b)

    (d)

    neither (a) nor (b)

  41. The secondary suffix used in IUPAC nomenclature of an aldehyde is ____

    (a)

    - ol

    (b)

    – oic acid

    (c)

    – al

    (d)

    - one

  42. Which of the following are used as anaesthetics?

    (a)

    Carboxylic acids

    (b)

    Ethers

    (c)

    Esters

    (d)

    Aldehydes

  43. Chemical formula of acetaldehyde is _________________.

    (a)

    CH3CHO

    (b)

    CH3CH2OH

    (c)

    CH3COOCH3

    (d)

    CH3-O-CH3

  44. Ethanolis used as ______________

    (a)

    a preservative for biological specimen

    (b)

    an antifreeze

    (c)

    an antiseptic

    (d)

    all the above

  45. The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of

    (a)

    root

    (b)

    stem

    (c)

    leaves

    (d)

    flower

  46. The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called _________

    (a)

    radial

    (b)

    amphivasal

    (c)

    conjoint

    (d)

    None of these

  47. The ___________ is called starch sheath in a dicot stem.

    (a)

    epidermis

    (b)

    pericycle

    (c)

    endodermis

    (d)

    hypodermis

  48. ____________ helps in transpiration.

    (a)

    Stomata

    (b)

    Epidermis

    (c)

    Trichomes

    (d)

    Root hairs

  49. Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of

    (a)

    Excretory system

    (b)

    Nervous system

    (c)

    Reproductive system

    (d)

    Respiratory system

  50. The body of leech has

    (a)

    23 segments

    (b)

    23 segments

    (c)

    38 segments

    (d)

    30 segments

  51. Leeches may grow to a length of______

    (a)

    35 cm

    (b)

    45 cm

    (c)

    25cm

    (d)

    20cm

  52. PNSis formed of _______pairs of cranial nerves in Rabbit

    (a)

    10

    (b)

    12

    (c)

    14

    (d)

    16

  53. ‘Heart of heart’ is called

    (a)

    SA node

    (b)

    AV node

    (c)

    Purkinje fibres

    (d)

    Bundle of His

  54. Which one of the following regarding blood composition is correct

    (a)

    Plasma - Blood + Lymphocyte

    (b)

    Serum - Blood + Fibrinogen

    (c)

    Lymph - Plasma + RBC + WBC

    (d)

    Blood - Plasma + RBC+ WBC +Platelets

  55. By active transport _________moves into the cells where it is utilised or stored.

    (a)

    glucose

    (b)

    sucrose

    (c)

    fructose

    (d)

    water

  56. The other name of red blood corpuscles is _________

    (a)

    erythrocytes

    (b)

    leucocytes

    (c)

    granulocytes

    (d)

    agranulocytes

  57. The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the muscle fibre.

    (a)

    afferent neurons

    (b)

    association neuron

    (c)

    efferent neuron

    (d)

    unipolar neuron

  58. Nerve cells do not possess

    (a)

    neurilemma

    (b)

    sarcolemma

    (c)

    axon

    (d)

    dendrites

  59. The cytoplasm has granular body called _______

    (a)

    nissl's granules

    (b)

    nerve fibres

    (c)

    glial cells

    (d)

    nerve cells

  60. Each neuron can transmit ______ nerve impulses per second.

    (a)

    2000

    (b)

    3000

    (c)

    1000

    (d)

    5000

  61. Gibberellins cause:

    (a)

    Shortening of genetically tall plants

    (b)

    Elongation of dwarf plants

    (c)

    Promotion of rooting

    (d)

    Yellowing of young leaves

  62. The hormone which has positive effect on apical dominance is:

    (a)

    Cytokinin

    (b)

    Auxin

    (c)

    Gibberellin

    (d)

    Ethylene

  63. ______ is a growth inhibitor.

    (a)

    Auxin

    (b)

    GA

    (c)

    Cytokinin

    (d)

    Ethylene

  64. _____ is a natural Auxin.

    (a)

    Phenyl Acetic Acid

    (b)

    Indole 3 Butyric Acid

    (c)

    α - Naphthalene Acetic Acid

    (d)

    Indole - 3- Propionic Acid

  65. _____ promotes the ripening of fruits.

    (a)

    Auxin

    (b)

    Abscisic Acid

    (c)

    Ethylene

    (d)

    Cytokinin

  66. Dwarfism is caused by decreased secretion of ______ in children.

    (a)

    GH

    (b)

    FSH

    (c)

    GTH

    (d)

    ACTH

  67. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of ___________

    (a)

    Generative cell

    (b)

    Vegetative cell

    (c)

    Microspore mother cell

    (d)

    Microspore

  68. The large elongated cells that provide nutrition to developing sperms are

    (a)

    Primary germ cells

    (b)

    Sertoli cells

    (c)

    Leydig cells

    (d)

    Spermatogonia

  69. Fragmentation is seen in_________

    (a)

    Spirogyra

    (b)

    Bryophyllum

    (c)

    Yeast

    (d)

    Hydra

  70. There are_________ polar nuclei in the embryo sac

    (a)

    2

    (b)

    3

    (c)

    4

    (d)

    1

  71. _______from anterior pituitary stimulates milk secretion

    (a)

    Oxytocin

    (b)

    Prolactin

    (c)

    Progestrone

    (d)

    Oestrogen

  72. The process of spermatogenesis takes place inthe___________

    (a)

    Sertolicel cells

    (b)

    Seminiferoustubules

    (c)

    Leydigcells

    (d)

    Centrioles

  73. _______from the posterior pituitary stimulates the uterine contractions

    (a)

    Oxytocin

    (b)

    Insulin

    (c)

    Estrogen

    (d)

    Prolactin

  74. The _____________ units form the backbone of the DNA.

    (a)

    5 carbon sugar

    (b)

    Phosphate

    (c)

    Nitrogenous bases

    (d)

    Sugar phosphate

  75. Okasaki fragments are joined together by ___________________.

    (a)

    Helicase

    (b)

    DNA polymerase

    (c)

    RNA primer

    (d)

    DNA ligase

  76. Choose the correct pair

    (a)

    A=T

    (b)

    G=A

    (c)

    A=C

  77. ________is a gene mutation

    (a)

    Deletion

    (b)

    Duplication

    (c)

    Translocation

    (d)

    Ploidy

  78. Biogenetic law states that ___________

    (a)

    Ontogeny and phylogeny go together

    (b)

    Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

    (c)

    Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny

    (d)

    There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny

  79. The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by

    (a)

    Radio-carbon method

    (b)

    Uranium lead method

    (c)

    Potassium-argon method

    (d)

    Both (a) and (c)

  80. Biogenesis was speculated by _________.

    (a)

    Haldane

    (b)

    Pasteur

    (c)

    Darwin

    (d)

    Lamarck

  81. Ancon sheep is an example of _________.

    (a)

    vestigial organ

    (b)

    discontinuous variation

    (c)

    acquired character

    (d)

    natural selection

  82. _________ or sediments fill the hollow depression and forms a cast.

    (a)

    Rocks

    (b)

    Sand

    (c)

    Soil

    (d)

    Minerals

  83. Radioactive Carbon (C14) dating method was discovered by_________

    (a)

    w. F.Libby

    (b)

    Niels Bohr

    (c)

    Issac Newton

    (d)

    William Harvey

  84. Charles Darwin was a great __________.

    (a)

    Chemist

    (b)

    Naturalist

    (c)

    Doctor

    (d)

    Physicist

  85. Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a farmer if he is inexperienced?

    (a)

    clonal selection

    (b)

    mass selection

    (c)

    pureline selection

    (d)

    hybridisation

  86. rDNA is a

    (a)

    vector DNA

    (b)

    circular DNA

    (c)

    recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA

    (d)

    satellite DNA

  87. In human beings, _________ of the DNA base sequences are the same and this is called as bulk genomic DNA.

    (a)

    99%

    (b)

    50%

    (c)

    90%

    (d)

    70%

  88. DNA finger printing was developed by

    (a)

    Dr. Ian Wilmut

    (b)

    Alec Jeffrey

    (c)

    Lilly

    (d)

    Dr. Norman

  89. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they are

    (a)

    Different in structure

    (b)

    Non dividing

    (c)

    Starved mutation

    (d)

    Undergoing rapid division

  90. Cancer of the epithelial cells is called

    (a)

    Leukemia

    (b)

    Sarcoma

    (c)

    Carcinoma

    (d)

    Lipoma

  91. ______________ is not related to NIDDM.

    (a)

    Insulin administration

    (b)

    Controlled by medicine

    (c)

    Obese

    (d)

    Insulin action impaired

  92. Sexually abused children show symptoms of ______________

    (a)

    frequent urinary infection

    (b)

    headache

    (c)

    sore head

    (d)

    migraine

  93. An inexhaustible resources is

    (a)

    wind power

    (b)

    soil fertility

    (c)

    wild life

    (d)

    all of the above

  94. Common energy source in village is

    (a)

    electricity

    (b)

    coal

    (c)

    biogas

    (d)

    wood and animal dung

  95. The Chipko movement originated in_________

    (a)

    Uttar pradesh

    (b)

    Uttarakhand

    (c)

    Arunachal Pradesh

    (d)

    Madhya Pradesh

  96. Medical waste is disposed by________

    (a)

    Sanitary land fill

    (b)

    Incineration

    (c)

    Composting

    (d)

    Segregation

  97. Which is used to build scripts?

    (a)

    Script area

    (b)

    Block palette

    (c)

    stage

    (d)

    sprite

  98. Where you will create category of blocks?

    (a)

    Block palette

    (b)

    Block menu

    (c)

    Script area

    (d)

    sprite

  99. The output of any application is commonly known as______

    (a)

    File

    (b)

    Folder

    (c)

    Disk

    (d)

    Output

  100. Multiplefilesarestoredina___________

    (a)

    Script Editor

    (b)

    Paint

    (c)

    Notepad

    (d)

    Folder

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