New ! Biology MCQ Practise Tests



Reproduction Organisms Important Questions

12th Standard

    Reg.No. :
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  
  •  

Biology

Time : 01:00:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 60

    Part - A

    57 x 1 = 57
  1. In each of the following questions there are two statements. One is assertion (A) and other is reasoning (R). Mark the correct answer as
    Assertion (A) : In bee society, all the members are diploid except drones.
    Reason (R) : Drones are produced by parthenogenesis
    Codes:
    A. If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
    B. If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A
    C. If A is true but R is false
    D. If both A and R are false.

    (a)

    If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A

    (b)

    If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A

    (c)

    If A is true but R is false

    (d)

    If both A and R are false

  2. Assertion and reasoning questions:
    In each of the following questions there are two statements. One is assertion (A) and other is reasoning (R). Mark the correct answer as
    Assertion: Viviparous animals give better protection to their off springs.
    Reason: They lay their eggs in the safe places of the environment.
    Codes:
    A. If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
    B. If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A
    C. If A is true but R is false
    D. If both A and R are false.

    (a)

    If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A

    (b)

    If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A

    (c)

    If A is true but R is false

    (d)

    If both A and R are false

  3. Conjugation is seen in _____

    (a)

    Vorticella

    (b)

    Amoeba

    (c)

    Reptiles

    (d)

    Actinosphaerium

  4. Starfish shown ______ type of regeneration.

    (a)

    epimorphosis - reparative

    (b)

    epimorphosis (restorative)

    (c)

    morphallaxis

    (d)

    paedogenesis

  5. Transverse binary fission is noticed in _________________

    (a)

    Amoeba

    (b)

    Planaria

    (c)

    Ceratium

    (d)

    Vorticella

  6. The site of embryo implantation is the _____.

    (a)

    Uterus

    (b)

    Peritoneal cavity

    (c)

    Vagina

    (d)

    Fallopian tube

  7. Assertion(A): In human male, testes are extra abdominal and lie in scrotal sacs.
    Reason(R): Scrotum acts as thermoregulator and keeps temperature lower by 2oC for normal sperm production.
    Codes:
    (a) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
    (b) A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
    (c)  A is true, R is false
    (d) Both A and R are false

    (a)

    A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

    (b)

    A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A

    (c)

    A is true, R is false

    (d)

    Both A and R are false

  8. _____ is a temporary endocine gland formed during pregnancy from the follicle.

    (a)

    oestrogen

    (b)

    corpus luteum

    (c)

    progesterone

    (d)

    relaxin

  9. The stage where the embryo looks like a fluid filled hollow ball is called ______

    (a)

    trophoblast

    (b)

    morula

    (c)

    gastrula

    (d)

    blastocyst

  10. Statement (1): Human pregnancy lasts for 35 weeks.
    Statement (2): During gestation, embryo's heat develops during 12th week

    (a)

    Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect

    (b)

    Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct

    (c)

    Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct

    (d)

    Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct

  11. A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by ______.

    (a)

    blocking fallopian tube

    (b)

    inhibiting release of FSH and LH

    (c)

    stimulating release of FSH and LH

    (d)

    causing immediate degeneration of released ovum.

  12. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

    Column I Column II
    A. Copper releasing IUD (i) LNG-20
    B. Hormone releasing (ii) Lippes loop IUD
    C. Non medicated IUD (iii) Saheli
    D. Mini pills (iv) Multiload-375
    (a)
    A B C D
    (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
    (b)
    A B C D
    (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
    (c)
    A B C D
    (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
    (d)
    A B C D
    (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
  13. One of the following prevents sperm from heading off to penis as the discharge has no sperms in it.

    (a)

    Tubectomy

    (b)

    LNG - 20

    (c)

    Vasectomy

    (d)

    Cu T 380 Ag

  14. Prevention of children from sexual offences is covered under ______ act

    (a)

    PCPNDT

    (b)

    patent act

    (c)

    ART

    (d)

    POCSO

  15. In chorionic villus sampling test, the tissue sample is taken from _________

    (a)

    amniotic fluid

    (b)

    placental tissue

    (c)

    Intestinal villi

    (d)

    foetal liver

  16. Down's syndrome is a genetic disorder which is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome number _____.

    (a)

    20

    (b)

    21

    (c)

    4

    (d)

    23

  17. Which of the following is incorrect regarding ZW-ZZ type of sex determination?

    (a)

    It occurs in birds and some reptiles

    (b)

    Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic

    (c)

    Male produce one type of gamete

    (d)

    It occurs in gypsy moth

  18. __________ is a disease where abnormal haemoglobin is produced in patients.

    (a)

    Phenylketonuria

    (b)

    Huntington's chorea

    (c)

    Thalassemia

    (d)

    Albinism

  19. One gene 'L' controlling blood groups is named after_________.

    (a)

    c. B. Bridges

    (b)

    Henking

    (c)

    Landsteiner

    (d)

    Stevens

  20. The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was found to be very suitable for experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues because

    (a)

    It reproduces parthenogenetically

    (b)

    A single mating produces two young flies

    (c)

    Smaller female is easily recognizable from largemale

    (d)

    It completes the life cycle in about'two weeks

  21. Which of the following is the correct sequence of event with reference to the central dogma?

    (a)

    Transcription, Translation, Replication

    (b)

    Transcription, Replication, Translation

    (c)

    Duplication, Translation, Transcription

    (d)

    Replication, Transcription, Translation

  22. Which of the following statements is not true about DNA replication in eukaryotes?

    (a)

    Replication begins at a single origin of replication.

    (b)

    Replication is bidirectional from the origins.

    (c)

    Replication occurs at about 1 million base pairs per minute

    (d)

    There are numerous different bacterial chromosomes, with replication ocurring in each at the same time.

  23. Escherichia coli fully labeled with N14 medium. The two strands of DNA molecules of the first generation bacteria have

    (a)

    Different density and do not resemble parent DNA

    (b)

    Different density but resemble parent DNA

    (c)

    Same density and resemble parent DNA

    (d)

    Same density but do not resemble parents DNA

  24. Whose experiment finally provided convincing evidence that DNA is the genetic material?

    (a)

    Griffith experiment

    (b)

    Avery, Macleod and McCarty's experiment

    (c)

    Hershey-Chase experiment

    (d)

    Urey-Miller's experiment

  25. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

    (a)

    Transcription - Copying information from DNA to RNA

    (b)

    Translation - Decoding information from mRNA to protein

    (c)

    Replication - Making of DNA copies

    (d)

    Splicing - Joining of exons with introns

  26. The wings of birds and butterflies is an example of

    (a)

    Adaptive radiation

    (b)

    convergent evolution

    (c)

    divergent evolution

    (d)

    variation

  27. Which period was called “Age of fishes”?

    (a)

    Permian

    (b)

    Triassic

    (c)

    Devonian

    (d)

    Ordovician

  28. Emergence of modern birds occurred in _____________ period.

    (a)

    Devonian

    (b)

    Silurian

    (c)

    Jurassic

    (d)

    Cretaceous

  29. All the following provided the energy for chemical reaction in the primitive earth Except:

    (a)

    Rain

    (b)

    Lightning

    (c)

    UV radiations

    (d)

    volcanic activity

  30. Darwin's finches in Galapagos islands and Australian Marsupials are the example of

    (a)

    Industrial mechanism

    (b)

    Reproductive isolation

    (c)

    Genetic recombination

    (d)

    Adaptive recombination

  31. Exo-erythrocytic schizogony of Plasmodium takes place in _______

    (a)

    RBC

    (b)

    Leucocytes

    (c)

    Stomach

    (d)

    Liver

  32. Spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed as

    (a)

    Metastasis

    (b)

    Oncogenes

    (c)

    Proto-oncogenes

    (d)

    Malignant neoplasm

  33. ___________is a genetic disease

    (a)

    Rickets

    (b)

    Cystic fibrosis

    (c)

    Tuberculosi

    (d)

    Candidiasis

  34. ________________ test is done to confirm typhoid.

    (a)

    ELISA

    (b)

    Western blot

    (c)

    Widal test

    (d)

    Southern blot

  35. Which one of the following pairs is wrong.

    (a)

    Amoebiasis - Home fly

    (b)

    African sleeping sickness - Tsetse flies

    (c)

    Kala-azar - Sand fly

    (d)

    Malaria - female Anopheles mosquito

  36. Cry toxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against for______

    (a)

    Mosquitoes

    (b)

    Flies

    (c)

    Nematodes

    (d)

    Bollworms

  37. Cyclosporin – A is an immunosuppressive drug produced from _______

    (a)

    Aspergillus niger

    (b)

    Manascus purpureus

    (c)

    Penicillium notatum

    (d)

    Trichoderma polysporum

  38. Lactobacillus helps to produce________

    (a)

    Citric acid

    (b)

    Milk

    (c)

    Acetic acid

    (d)

    Butyric acid

  39. The cry toxin affects_______system of insect pests

    (a)

    Nervous system

    (b)

    Respiratory system

    (c)

    Digestive system

    (d)

    Reproductive system

  40. Select the correct statement from the following

    (a)

    Primary treatment of sewage involves biological oxidation

    (b)

    Excreta of cattle is commonly called Gobur

    (c)

    Delta endotoxin of Bacillus thuringiensis is encoded by pen-genes

    (d)

    Trichoderma is a free-timing bacteria very common in root ecosystem

  41. How many amino acids are arranged in the two chains of Insulin

    (a)

    Chain A has 12 and Chain B has 13

    (b)

    Chain A has 21 and Chain B has 30 amino acids

    (c)

    Chain A has 20 and Chain B has 30 amino acids

    (d)

    Chain A has 12 and chain B has 20 amino acids.

  42. Which one of the following statements is true regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?

    (a)

    It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells

    (b)

    It serves as a selectable marker

    (c)

    It is isolated from a Virus

    (d)

    It remains active at a high temperature

  43. _________is not linked to IPR.

    (a)

    Patents

    (b)

    Copy rights

    (c)

    GI

    (d)

    trademarks

  44. All the following are recombinant vaccines. Except

    (a)

    Traditional vaccines

    (b)

    Submit recombinant vaccines

    (c)

    Attenuated recombinant vaccines

    (d)

    DNA vaccines

  45. __________is an example for DNA vaccine

    (a)

    MMR

    (b)

    Hepatitis B

    (c)

    BCG

    (d)

    oral polio

  46. The relationship between sucker fish and shark is__________

    (a)

    Competition

    (b)

    Commensalism

    (c)

    Predation

    (d)

    Parasitism.

  47. What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid?

    (a)

    Vanishing population

    (b)

    Stable population

    (c)

    Declining population

    (d)

    Expanding population

  48. Van't Hoffs rule describes the impact of ____________ on the environment.

    (a)

    Light

    (b)

    Temperature

    (c)

    Water

    (d)

    Soil

  49. Type of response in hibernation and aestivation.

    (a)

    Suspend

    (b)

    Regulate

    (c)

    Migrate

    (d)

    Conform

  50. Pick out the eurythermal organism

    (a)

    Fish

    (b)

    Frog

    (c)

    Tiger

    (d)

    Lizards

  51. Select the correct linear equation describing the species - area relationship.

    (a)

    loc C = log S + Z log A

    (b)

    Z 10gA= log S + log C

    (c)

    log S = log C + Z log A

    (d)

    log C = log S ± Z log A

  52. Tilapia fish (Oreoehromis mosambieus) is exotic breed from_______

    (a)

    Mexico

    (b)

    South Africa

    (c)

    Canada

    (d)

    Central America

  53. Right to Clean Water is a fundamental right, under the Indian Constitution

    (a)

    Article 12

    (b)

    Article 21

    (c)

    Article 31

    (d)

    Article 41

  54. Which among the following awards instituted by the Government of India for individuals or communities from rural areas that have shown extraordinary courage and dedication in protecting Wildlife?

    (a)

    Indira Gandhi Paryavaran Puraskar

    (b)

    Medini Puruskar Yojana

    (c)

    Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award

    (d)

    Pitambar Pant National Award

  55. Average human consumption of oxygen per day is_________

    (a)

    280 L

    (b)

    550 L

    (c)

    620 L

    (d)

    730 L

  56. The intensity of noise is measured in_______

    (a)

    Dobson

    (b)

    Hertz

    (c)

    Decibel

    (d)

    Frequency

  57. According to noise pollution rules 2000, the permissible level of noise in commercial area is ________ during day and ________during night

    (a)

    55 db, 65 db

    (b)

    65 db, 55 db

    (c)

    70 db, 60 db

    (d)

    75 db, 65 db

  58. Part - B

    30 x 2 = 60
  59. Define isogamy.

  60. During which stagesidoes multiple fission occur is plasmodium.

  61. How is polyspermy avoided in humans?

  62. Draw a labeled sketch of a spermatozoan.

  63. Describe the location and shape of the uterus.

  64. Define the terms
    (a) Insemination
    (b) Fertilization.

  65. Define Tubectomy and Vascetomy.

  66. Name any four national level health care programmes run by Indian Government

  67. What is haplodiploidy?

  68. What is Lyonisation?

  69. What is Lyon's hypothesis?

  70. Comment on Trisomy-21.

  71. Give reasons: ‘Genetic code is universal’.

  72. Mention any two ways in which single nucleotide polymorphism (SNPs) identified in human genome can bring revolutionary change in biological and medical science.

  73. What is TATA box? State its function

  74. Mention the inhibitory role of tetracycline and streptomycin in bacterial translation

  75. Name the types of natural selection.

  76. Write a brief note on Homo sapiens with respect to evolution.

  77. Name two RNA viruses which cause diseases in humans.

  78. What causes shivering in malarial patient?

  79. What is "clot buster"?

  80. The first antibiotic was extracted from fungus. Who had done it? And also mention the fungal species used.

  81. Name the disease that are treated by using interferons.

  82. Define the terms (a) Totipotency (b) Unipotency

  83. StateIordon's rule.

  84. What is ecosphere?

  85. Name any four biogeographic zones in India.

  86. Mention any two species that had become extinct very recently.

  87. Define the term eutrophication.

  88. Complete the following:
    (a) Smoke +_____ = Smog

  89. Part - C

    20 x 3 = 60
  90. Why is the offspring formed by asexual reproduction referred as a clone?

  91. Give the definition for (a) Arrhenotoky (b) Thelytoky (c) Amphitoky

  92. Mention the importance of the position of the testes in humans.

  93. Menstrual hygiene is essential for women. Why?

  94. Expand the following
    a) ZIFT
    b) ICSI

  95. How LNG-20 act as contraceptive?

  96. What is male heterogamety?

  97. What is the chemical reaction that is affected in people suffering from Albinism?

  98. Distinguish between structural gene, regulatory gene and operator gene

  99. What is 'Wobbling' in tRNA?

  100. Taking the example of Peppered moth, explain the action of natural selection. What do you call the above phenomenon?

  101. What are coprolites? Mention its role in phylogeny.

  102. Name the diseases for which vaccines were developed by Louis Pasteur

  103. How do statins help to control cholesterol levels?

  104. Explain how ADA deficiency can be corrected

  105. State any two uniqueness of ELISA test.

  106. People leaving in high altitudes show increased RBC count. Give reason.

  107. Why do we find a decrease in biodiversity distribution, if we move from the tropics towards the poles?

  108. Give examples of any three National Parks in Tamil Nadu.

  109. Write a brief note on Chipko movement.

  110. Part - D

    11 x 5 = 55
  111. Write notes on binary fission in animals.

  112. Describe the structure of human ovary.

  113. What is ART? Explain any two for ART.

  114. Discuss the methods adopted for the improvement of human race.

  115. How the DNA is packed in an eukaryotic cell?

  116. Explain the events in life cycle of plasmodium in the secondary host/Man

  117. How microbes are used in Gobar gas production?

  118. Explain in detail about stem cell therapy. (or) What are the multipotent cells involved in replenishing adult tissue ? What is the rich source for it?

  119. Explain structural and behavioural adaptations seen in organism.

  120. Write a note on extinction and its types

  121. How radioactive waste are managed? Suggest few methods of disposal of radioactive waste.(or) write an essay on Radioactive waste management.

*****************************************

Reviews & Comments about 12th Standard Biology English Medium Reproduction Organisms Important Questions

Write your Comment