New ! Chemistry MCQ Practise Tests



Metallurgy

12th Standard

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Chemistry

Time : 01:00:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 60
    60 x 1 = 60
  1. Which of the metal is extracted by Hall-Heroult process?

    (a)

    Al

    (b)

    Ni

    (c)

    Cu

    (d)

    Zn

  2. Which of the following is not true with respect to Ellingham diagram?

    (a)

    Free energy changes follow a straight line. Deviation occurs when there is a phase change.

    (b)

    The graph for the formation of CO2 is a straight line almost parallel to free energy axis.

    (c)

    Negative slope of CO shows that it becomes more stable with increase in temperature.

    (d)

    Positive slope of metal oxides shows that their stabilities decrease with increase in temperature.

  3. Concentration of copper glance is done by________.

    (a)

    leaching

    (b)

    magnetic separation

    (c)

    froth flotation

    (d)

    hydraulic washing

  4. Steel is an alloy of___________

    (a)

    iron and carbon

    (b)

    iron and calcium

    (c)

    copper and carbon

    (d)

    copper and iron

  5. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?

    (a)

    Me3SiCl

    (b)

    PhSiCl3

    (c)

    MeSiCl3

    (d)

    Me2SiCl2

  6. Which of the following is not sp2 hybridised?

    (a)

    Graphite

    (b)

    graphene

    (c)

    Fullerene

    (d)

    dry ice

  7. Lewis acid character of boron trihalides is as a follows _______.

    (a)

    BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3

    (b)

    BCI> BF3 > BBr3 > BI3

    (c)

    BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3

    (d)

    BI3 > BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3

  8. Chemical formula of phosgene is_______.

    (a)

    COCl2

    (b)

    CaOCl2

    (c)

    CaCO3

    (d)

    COCI

  9. Assertion: Bond dissociation energy of fluorine is greater than chlorine gas
    Reason: Chlorine has more electronic repulsion than fluorine.
    Codes:
    a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
    b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
    c) Assertion is true but reason is false
    d) Both assertion and reason are false

    (a)

    Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

    (b)

    Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

    (c)

    Assertion is true but reason is false

    (d)

    Both assertion and reason are false

  10. Which of the following is strongest acid among all?

    (a)

    HI

    (b)

    HF

    (c)

    HBr

    (d)

    HCl

  11. Which reaction is not feasible.

    (a)

    \({ 2H }_{ 2 }O+{ 2F }_{ 2 }\longrightarrow 4HF+{ O }_{ 2 }\)

    (b)

    \(2 \mathrm{KBr}+\mathrm{I}_{2} \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{KI}+\mathrm{Br}_{2}\)

    (c)

    \(2KBr+{ Cl }_{ 2 }\longrightarrow 2KCl+{ Br }_{ 2 }\)

    (d)

    \(2 \mathrm{KI}+\mathrm{Br}_{2} \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{KBr}+\mathrm{I}_{2}\)

  12. The high reactivity of fluorine is due to________.

    (a)

    high ionisation energy

    (b)

    low bond dissociation energy

    (c)

    low electron affinity

    (d)

    high electro negativity

  13. Sc (Z = 21) is a transition element but Zinc (z = 30) is not because _______.

    (a)

    both Sc3+ and Zn2+ ions are colourless and form white compounds

    (b)

    In case of Sc, 3d orbital are partially filled but in Zn these are completely filled

    (c)

    last electron as assumed to be added to 4s level in case of zinc

    (d)

    both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states

  14. The catalytic behaviour of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly due to _______.

    (a)

    their magnetic behaviour

    (b)

    their unfilled d orbitals

    (c)

    their ability to adopt variable oxidation states

    (d)

    their chemical reactivity

  15. Identify the paramagnetic species.

    (a)

    Cu+

    (b)

    Cr+

    (c)

    MnO4

    (d)

    Zn2+

  16. _________ is known as Bayer's reagent.

    (a)

    Hot dilute alkaline KMnO4

    (b)

    Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4

    (c)

    Hot Conc. acidic KMnO4

    (d)

    Cold Conc. acidic KMnO4

  17. Which one of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?

    (a)

    [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]

    (b)

    [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl

    (c)

    [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl4]

    (d)

    [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2

  18. Formula of tris(ethane-1, 2-diamine)iron(II)phosphate _______.

    (a)

    [Fe(CH3-CH(NH2)2)3](PO4)3

    (b)

    [Fe(H2N-CH2-CH2-NH2)3](PO4)

    (c)

    [Fe(H2N-CH2-CH2-NH2)3](PO4)2

    (d)

    [Fe(H2N-CH2-CH2-NH2)3]3(PO4)2

  19. The hypothetical complex triamminediaqua chloridocobalt (III)chloride can be represented as _______.

    (a)

    [Co(NH3)3(H2O)2Cl]Cl2

    (b)

    [Co(NH)3(H2O)Cl3]

    (c)

    [Co(NH2)3(H2O)2Cl]

    (d)

    [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3

  20. In an octahedral complex, the (n-1) d orbital are involved in hybridization. The complex is called ________ complex.

    (a)

    inner orbital

    (b)

    low spin

    (c)

    spin paired

    (d)

    all the above

  21. In a solid atom M occupies ccp lattice and \(\left( \frac { 1 }{ 3 } \right) \) of tetrahedral voids are occupied by atom N. Find the formula of solid formed by M and N ________.

    (a)

    MN

    (b)

    M3N

    (c)

    MN3

    (d)

    M3N2

  22. The ionic radii of A+ and B are 0.98 x 10-10 m and 1.81 x 10-10 m. the coordination number of each ion in AB is ________.

    (a)

    8

    (b)

    2

    (c)

    6

    (d)

    4

  23. In a face centred cubic cell, an atom at the face contributes to the unit cell_______.

    (a)

    \(\frac{1}{4}\)Part

    (b)

    1Part

    (c)

    \(\frac{1}{2}\)Part

    (d)

    \(\frac{1}{8}\)Part

  24. ABAB type of packing is called _________.

    (a)

    hexagonal close packing

    (b)

    cubic close packing

    (c)

    tetragonal close packing

    (d)

    none of the above

  25. For a reaction Rate = k[acetone]3/2 then unit of rate constant and rate of reaction respectively is _______.

    (a)

    (mol L-1 S-1),(mol1/2 L1/2 S-1)

    (b)

    (mol-1/2 L1/2 s-1),(mol L-1 s-1)

    (c)

    (mol1/2 L1/2 s-1),(mol L-1 s-1)

    (d)

    (mol L s-1),(mol1/2 L1/2 s)

  26. In a reversible reaction, the enthalpy change and the activation energy in the forward direction are respectively −x kJ mol-1 and y kJ mol-1. Therefore, the energy of activation in the backward direction is _______.

    (a)

    (y-x) kJ mol-1

    (b)

    (x+y) J mol-1

    (c)

    (x-y) KJ mol-1

    (d)

    (x+y) x 103J mol-1

  27. For a reaction: aA ⟶ bB, the rate of reaction is doubled when the concentration of A is increased by four times. The rate of reaction is equal to _____.

    (a)

    k[A]a

    (b)

    \(k{ \left[ A \right] }^{ \frac { 1 }{ 2 } }\)

    (c)

    \(k{ \left[ A \right] }^{ \frac { 1 }{ a } }\)

    (d)

    K[A]

  28. The half-life period of a first order reaction is 69.3 seconds. Its rate constant is ________.

    (a)

    10-2 s-1

    (b)

    10-4 s-1

    (c)

    10 s-1

    (d)

    102 s-1

  29. What is the decreasing order of strength of bases
    OH, NH2- H - C ≡ C and CH3 - CH2-

    (a)

    OH->NH2- >H-C≡C >CH3-CH2-

    (b)

    NH2->OH->CH3-CH2- >H-C≡C

    (c)

    CH3-CH2->NH2->H-C≡C->OH-

    (d)

    OH->H-C ≡ C->CH3-CH2- >NH2-

  30. Dissociation constant of NH4OH is 1.8 x 10-5  the hydrolysis constant of NH4Cl would be _______.

    (a)

    1.8 × 10-19

    (b)

    5.55 × 10-10

    (c)

    5.55 × 10-5

    (d)

    1.80 × 10-5

  31. Which among the following has the highest pH?

    (a)

    1M NH4 OH

    (b)

    1M HCI

    (c)

    1M NaOH

    (d)

    0.1 M NaOH

  32. Henderson equation for a weak acid and its salt is _______.

    (a)

    pH = pKb+ log (Salt) / (Acid)

    (b)

    pH = pKa + log (Salt) / (Acid)

    (c)

    pH = pKa + log (Salt) / (Base)

    (d)

    pH = pKa + log (Acid) / (Salt)

  33. How many faradays of electricity are required for the following reaction to occur MnO4-→ Mn2+

    (a)

    5F

    (b)

    3F

    (c)

    1F

    (d)

    7F

  34. While charging lead storage battery _______.

    (a)

    PbSO4 on cathode is reduced to Pb

    (b)

    PbSO4 on anode is oxidised to PbO2

    (c)

    PbSO4 on anode is reduced to Pb

    (d)

    PbSO4 on cathode is oxidised to Pb

  35. What happens during the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride?

    (a)

    Cl2 is released at the cathode

    (b)

    Liquid sodium is obtained at the anode

    (c)

    The emf of the overall reaction is -4.07 V

    (d)

    Cl2 is released at the cathode and Liquid sodium is obtained at the anode

  36. The metals near the bottom of the electro chemical series are ______.

    (a)

    strong reducing agents

    (b)

    strong oxidising agents

    (c)

    weak reducing agents

    (d)

    weak oxidising agents

  37. Which one of the following characteristics are associated with adsorption?

    (a)

    \(\Delta\)G and \(\Delta\)H are negative but \(\Delta\)S is positive

    (b)

    \(\Delta\)G and \(\Delta\)S are negative but \(\Delta\)H is positive

    (c)

    \(\Delta\)G is negative but \(\Delta\)H and \(\Delta\)S are positive

    (d)

    \(\Delta\)G, \(\Delta\)H and \(\Delta\)S all are negative.

  38. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

    (a)

    Emulsion - Smoke

    (b)

    Gel - butter

    (c)

    foam - Mist

    (d)

    whipped cream - sol

  39. Which among the following does not affect adsorption?

    (a)

    surface area of the adsorbent

    (b)

    catalyst

    (c)

    temperature

    (d)

    pressure

  40. An emulsion is a colloidal solution of _______.

    (a)

    two solids

    (b)

    two liquids

    (c)

    two gases

    (d)

    one solid and one liquid

  41. Which of the following compound can be used as antifreeze in automobile rediators?

    (a)

    methanol

    (b)

    ethanol

    (c)

    Neopentyl alcohol

    (d)

    ethan -1, 2-diol

  42. One mole of an organic compound (A) with the formula C3H8O reacts completely with two moles of HI to form X and Y. When Y is boiled with aqueous alkali it forms Z. Z answers the iodoform test. The compound (A) is  ______.

    (a)

    propan – 2-ol

    (b)

    propan -1-ol

    (c)

    ethoxy ethane

    (d)

    methoxy ehane

  43. Ethers in the presence of atmospheric oxygen oxidises to give hydroperoxides and dialkyl peroxides Such a spontaneous reaction by atmospheric oxygen is called ______.

    (a)

    auto oxidation

    (b)

    acylation

    (c)

    alkylation

    (d)

    dehydration

  44. The characteristic odour of lower phenol is _________.

    (a)

    carbolic acid

    (b)

    fruity

    (c)

    oil of bitter almond

    (d)

    rotten fish

  45. Phenyl methanal is reacted with concentrated NaOH to give two products X and Y. X reacts with metallic sodium to liberate hydrogen X and Y are ________.

    (a)

    sodium benzoate and phenol

    (b)

    Sodium benzoate and phenyl methanol

    (c)

    phenyl methanol and sodium benzoate

    (d)

    none of these

  46. An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 and Zn - H2O gives propanone and ethanol in equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene “A” gives “B” as the major product. The structure of product “B” is ______.

    (a)

    \(Cl-{ CH }_{ 2 }-CH_{ 2 }-\overset { \overset { CH_{ 3 } }{ | } }{ \underset { \underset { CH_{ 3 } }{ | } }{ CH } } \)

    (b)

    \({ H }_{ 3 }C-{ CH }_{ 2 }-\overset { \overset { CH_{ 2 }Cl }{ | } }{ CH } -{ CH }_{ 3 }\)

    (c)

    \(\\ { H }_{ 3 }C-{ CH }_{ 2 }-\overset { \overset { CH_{ 3 } }{ | } }{ \underset { \underset { CL{ } }{ | } }{ C } } -{ CH }_{ 3 }\)

    (d)

    \({ H }_{ 3 }C-{ CH }-\overset { \overset { CH_{ 3 } }{ | } }{ \underset { \underset { Cl }{ | } }{ C } } \)

  47. The number of carbon atoms in a chain can be increased with _______ reaction.

    (a)

    Grignard

    (b)

    Cannizaro reaction

    (c)

    HVZ

    (d)

    Clemmensen

  48. acid chloride + alcohol \(\longrightarrow\)?.

    (a)

    acids

    (b)

    amides

    (c)

    esters

    (d)

    amines

  49. Which one of the following nitro compounds does not react with nitrous acid.

    (a)

    CH3 -CH2 -CH2 -NO2

    (b)

    (CH3)2 CH - CH2NO2

    (c)

    (CH3)C NO2

    (d)

    \({ CH }_{ 3 }-\underset { \overset { || }{ O } }{ C } -\underset { \overset { || }{ { CH }_{ 3 } } }{ CH } -{ NO }_{ 2 }\)

  50. The order of basic strength for methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is _________.

    (a)

    N(CH3)3> N(CH3)2H> N(CH3)H2> NH3

    (b)

    N(CH3)H2>N(CH3)2H > N(CH3)3>NH3

    (c)

    NH3> N(CH3)H2> N(CH3)2 H>N(CH3)3

    (d)

    N(CH3)2H>N(CH3)H2> N(CH3)3> NH3

  51. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic medium gives

    (a)

    aniline

    (b)

    p - aminophenol

    (c)

    m-nitroaniline

    (d)

    azoxybenzene

  52. The tertiary nitro compound is ___________

    (a)

    2-nitropropane

    (b)

    1-nitropropane

    (c)

    1-nitro-2, 2-dimethyl propane

    (d)

    2-nitro-2-methyl propane

  53. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?

    (a)

    Vitamin E

    (b)

    Vitamin K

    (c)

    Vitamin A

    (d)

    Vitamin B

  54. Which of the following amino acids are achiral?

    (a)

    Alanine

    (b)

    Leucine

    (c)

    Proline

    (d)

    Glycine

  55. Which is not a saturated fatty acid?

    (a)

    Palmitic acid

    (b)

    Stearic acid

    (c)

    Oleic acid

    (d)

    Glyceric acid

  56. Disaccharides linked through the glycosidic carbon atoms of C1 of glucose and C2 of fructose are_______

    (a)

    non-reducing

    (b)

    reducing

    (c)

    both (a) and (b)

    (d)

    neither (a) nor (b)

  57. Dettol is the mixture of _____________.

    (a)

    Chloroxylenol and bithionol

    (b)

    Chloroxylenol and \(\alpha\)-terpineol

    (c)

    phenol and iodine

    (d)

    terpineol and bithionol

  58. Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms. Identify which of the following statement is not true.

    (a)

    dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics.

    (b)

    Disinfectants harm the living tissues

    (c)

    A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant

    (d)

    Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants

  59. The free radical polymerisation of the monomer 2 - chloro buta - l,3-diene gives _______________.

    (a)

    Buna N

    (b)

    Buna S

    (c)

    Neoprene

    (d)

    PHB

  60. The quality of a soap is described in term of _______

    (a)

    LDPE

    (b)

    HDPE

    (c)

    TFM (Total fatty matter)

    (d)

    LFM (Lowfatty matter)

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