New ! Commerce MCQ Practise Tests



Important 1 Mark Creative Questions (New Syllabus) 2020

12th Standard

    Reg.No. :
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Commerce

Time : 01:00:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 73

    Part A

    73 x 1 = 73
  1. The founder of scientific management was

    (a)

    Peter F. Drucker

    (b)

    Frederick Taylor

    (c)

    Henry Fayol

    (d)

    Elton

  2. Which of the following is not true?

    (a)

    Management is universal

    (b)

    Management is an art

    (c)

    Management is a social process

    (d)

    Management is always bureaucratic

  3. Co-ordination means

    (a)

    Organising activities

    (b)

    Directing activities

    (c)

    Synchronizing activities

    (d)

    All of these

  4. ___________ helps the regulation of job and co-ordinates the activities.

    (a)

    Innovation

    (b)

    Communication

    (c)

    Representation

    (d)

    Motivation

  5. Systematic evaluation of performance is made with the help of

    (a)

    MBO

    (b)

    KRA

    (c)

    MBE

    (d)

    MBA

  6. __________ focuses managerial attention on major problems.

    (a)

    MBA

    (b)

    HRA

    (c)

    MBE

    (d)

    MBO

  7. In primary markets, property of shares which made it easy to sell newly issued security is considered as

    (a)

    increased liquidity

    (b)

    decreased liquidity

    (c)

    money flow

    (d)

    large funds

  8. Financial intermediation is the process that the financial intermediaries connect _________ and ________ by transferring funds from one side to another

    (a)

    Banks and account holders

    (b)

    Borrowers and securities firms

    (c)

    Borrowers and lenders

    (d)

    Investors and lenders

  9. Which markets make possible to generate foreign capital?

    (a)

    Primary market

    (b)

    Secondary market

    (c)

    Money market

    (d)

    Capital market

  10. A best efforts offering is sometimes used in connection with a _______ of new, long-term securities.

    (a)

    Public issue

    (b)

    Private placement

    (c)

    Privileged subscription

    (d)

    all of the above

  11. Bills that are accompanied by documents of title to goods are called

    (a)

    Foreign bills

    (b)

    Indigeneous bills

    (c)

    Documentary bills

    (d)

    Demand bill

  12. A _____ is one wherein no specific time of payment is mentioned.

    (a)

    Demand bill

    (b)

    Documentary bill

    (c)

    Foreign bill

    (d)

    Indigeneous bill

  13. Tejiwala is an

    (a)

    Pessimistic speculator

    (b)

    Optimistic speculator

    (c)

    Premium hunter

    (d)

    Taravaniwalas

  14. SEBI is an apex body that maintains and regulates our

    (a)

    capital market

    (b)

    mutual funds

    (c)

    share capital

    (d)

    none of these

  15. _____ account can be opened with no balance of shares.

    (a)

    Fixed

    (b)

    Current

    (c)

    Demat

    (d)

    Recurring deposit

  16. The focus the Human resource management revolves around

    (a)

    Machine

    (b)

    Money

    (c)

    Men

    (d)

    None of these

  17. ______ helps the workforce to identify their level of performance.

    (a)

    Human resource

    (b)

    Human resource management

    (c)

    Personal management

    (d)

    None of these

  18. ______ functions are the HR functions that are required to administrate the manpower in the organisation.

    (a)

    Managerial

    (b)

    Analytical

    (c)

    Operational

    (d)

    Research

  19. Comparison between numbers of applications at each preceding stage of recruitment process is classified as

    (a)

    initialization ratio

    (b)

    resultant ratio

    (c)

    yield ratio

    (d)

    application ratio

  20. _____ is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organization.

    (a)

    Advertising

    (b)

    Selection

    (c)

    Recruitment

    (d)

    Staffing

  21. Which test measures the candidate's ability to find a logic in a series or pattern?

    (a)

    Number sequence test

    (b)

    Vocabulary test

    (c)

    Mental arithmetic test

    (d)

    Verbal reasoning test

  22. The process of eliminating unsuitable candidates is called

    (a)

    Interview

    (b)

    training

    (c)

    recruitment

    (d)

    selection

  23. _________is also called proficiency test.

    (a)

    Judgement test

    (b)

    Intelligence test

    (c)

    Aptitude test

    (d)

    Achievement test

  24. ________is done to know reliability and trust worthiness of the candidate.

    (a)

    Reference check

    (b)

    Approval by higher authority

    (c)

    Final selection

    (d)

    Contract by employment

  25. Which type of method to use their theoretical knowledge and practical knowledge?

    (a)

    Case study method

    (b)

    Lecture method

    (c)

    Role play method

    (d)

    Group discussion method

  26. Laboratory training is also known by the name

    (a)

    Sensitivity training

    (b)

    Job instruction training

    (c)

    Apprenticeship training

    (d)

    None of the above

  27. _______is mostly used for managerial employees.

    (a)

    Committee Assignment method

    (b)

    Coaching method

    (c)

    Mentoring method

    (d)

    Apprenticeship method

  28. ________method creates a situation that is as far as possible a replica of the real situation for imparting training.

    (a)

    The programmed learning

    (b)

    The simulation

    (c)

    The case study

    (d)

    The lecture

  29. Sub-division of marketing is called as

    (a)

    market segmentation

    (b)

    decision of market

    (c)

    allowcation of market

    (d)

    none of these

  30. _______is a medium for place to interact and exchange goods and services

    (a)

    Commerce

    (b)

    Industry

    (c)

    Business

    (d)

    Market

  31. The concept of marketing mix was developed by

    (a)

    N.H. Borden

    (b)

    Philip Kotler

    (c)

    Stanton

    (d)

    W. Anderson

  32. Development of a new product brings________utility

    (a)

    form

    (b)

    place

    (c)

    time

    (d)

    possession

  33. The warehousing holds goods as a________center.

    (a)

    distribution

    (b)

    production

    (c)

    sales

    (d)

    all the above.

  34. Which of the following describes e-commerce?

    (a)

    Doing business electronically

    (b)

    Doing business

    (c)

    Sale of goods

    (d)

    All of the above

  35. ______is suited to small companies

    (a)

    Multilevel marketing

    (b)

    Guerrilla marketing

    (c)

    Social marketing

    (d)

    Service marketing

  36. Caveat emptor means

    (a)

    Let the buyer beware

    (b)

    Let the seller beware

    (c)

    Both

    (d)

    None of these

  37. Which of the following is Consumer Oriented Act?

    (a)

    Indian Companies Act 1966

    (b)

    Partnership Act 1932

    (c)

    Indian Income Tax Act 1961

    (d)

    Hire Purchase Act 1972

  38. __________ is quite common in food articles.

    (a)

    Adulteration

    (b)

    Warranty

    (c)

    Duplicate

    (d)

    Scarcity

  39. ________ people have less money at their disposal.

    (a)

    American

    (b)

    China

    (c)

    Indian

    (d)

    None of these

  40. The national consumer disputes redressal commission is a__________.

    (a)

    legislative machinery

    (b)

    bureaucratic machinery

    (c)

    quasi-judicial machinery

    (d)

    judicial machinery

  41. The consumer must get cash receipt as a proof of goods purchased from the

    (a)

    buyer

    (b)

    seller

    (c)

    both

    (d)

    none of these

  42. ________ should make purchase judiciously and should not misuse his rights.

    (a)

    Employers

    (b)

    Consumer

    (c)

    Retailers

    (d)

    Wholesalers

  43. __________ provides a fair settlement of genuine grievances relating to the performance, grade, quality etc of goods and services.

    (a)

    Right to safety

    (b)

    Right to consumer education

    (c)

    Right to consumer protection act

    (d)

    Right to choose

  44. For the District consumer Forum, is a value of upto

    (a)

    Rs. 20 lakhs

    (b)

    Rs. 15 lakhs

    (c)

    Rs. 25 lakhs

    (d)

    Rs. 10 lakhs

  45. Members of state consumer protection council should not exceed

    (a)

    two

    (b)

    five

    (c)

    ten

    (d)

    three

  46. The District council shall held _________ meetings every year.

    (a)

    one

    (b)

    three

    (c)

    two

    (d)

    four

  47. The aim of any business is to satisfy the needs of its

    (a)

    Consumers

    (b)

    suppliers

    (c)

    financiers

    (d)

    public

  48. The economic environment of a business includes

    (a)

    Economic system

    (b)

    Economic policies

    (c)

    Economic conditions

    (d)

    All of these

  49. List I List II
    i) Suppliers 1) King
    ii) Customers 2) National and global
    iii) Competitors 3) Wholesalers and retailers
    iv) Channel members 4) Stock / inventory
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 3 4
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 1 2 3
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 3 4 1
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 4 1 2
  50. _________ refers to those factors within an organisation.

    (a)

    Internal environment

    (b)

    External environment 

    (c)

    Both 'a' and 'b'

    (d)

    None of these

  51. ________ is the general or overall environment in which the business operates.

    (a)

    Macro environment

    (b)

    Micro environment

    (c)

    Economic environment

    (d)

    None of these

  52. _________ consists of economic conditions, economic policies, industrial policies and economic system

    (a)

    Business environment

    (b)

    Economic environment

    (c)

    Natural environment

    (d)

    None of these

  53. Which of the following reduces the dependence on external commercial borrowings by attracting more foreign investments.

    (a)

    Privatization

    (b)

    Liberalization

    (c)

    Globalization

    (d)

    None of the above

  54. By which act government checks restrictive trade?

    (a)

    Industrial Policy Act 1991

    (b)

    MRTP Act

    (c)

    FEMA Act

    (d)

    None of these

  55. __________ industry has been liberalised.

    (a)

    Drugs and pharmaceuticals

    (b)

    Hazardous chemicals

    (c)

    Tobacco products

    (d)

    Defence equipment

  56. Globalisation widens the gap between _______ and ________

    (a)

    employers,employees

    (b)

    employment, unemployment

    (c)

    rich, poor

    (d)

    Capitalism, socialism

  57. According to sale of Goods Act, 1930, 'seller' means a person:

    (a)

    who only agrees to sell tlie goods

    (b)

    who sells or agrees to sell

    (c)

    who only sells the goods

    (d)

    who transfers the possession of the goods to the other party

  58. List I List II
    i) Two parties 1) Movable property
    ii) Transfer of property 2) Monetary consideration
    iii) Goods 3) Does not amount to sale
    iv) Price 4) Seller and buyer
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 4 2 1
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 3 4 1
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 3 4
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 3 1 2
  59. When an instrument has been lost it is presumed that it was

    (a)

    expired

    (b)

    duly stamped

    (c)

    stolen

    (d)

    misplaced

  60. _________ means an incomplete instrument in some respect

    (a)

    Ambiguous instrument

    (b)

    Time instrument

    (c)

    Inchoate instrument

    (d)

    Documentary bill

  61. CWEI was registered as a civil society in the year

    (a)

    1990

    (b)

    1992

    (c)

    1996

    (d)

    1998

  62. _________ is accredited by Government of India.

    (a)

    STEP

    (b)

    CWEI

    (c)

    DIC

    (d)

    TREAD

  63. Which of the following entrepreneurs are those motivated to take up venture by the desire for self-fulfilment?

    (a)

    Motivated

    (b)

    Spontaneous

    (c)

    Classical

    (d)

    Modern

  64. __________ entrepreneurs mobilise the resources of various types and create an entity to manufacture the products or service.

    (a)

    Industrial

    (b)

    Drone

    (c)

    Fabian

    (d)

    Business

  65. Entrepreneur has to apply for

    (a)

    Statutory license

    (b)

    Project report

    (c)

    Provisional Registration Certificate

    (d)

    Permanent Registration Certificate

  66. A debenture, in which no specific time is specified by the companies to pay back the money is called an

    (a)

    Registered debentures

    (b)

    Bearer debentures

    (c)

    Irredeemable debentures

    (d)

    None of these

  67. ______________ instruments are secured by on the fixed assets of the issuer company.

    (a)

    Secured debentures

    (b)

    Unsecured debenture

    (c)

    Redeemable debentures

    (d)

    Perpetual debentures

  68. Public companies which have Turnover

    (a)

    25 Crores

    (b)

    50 Crores

    (c)

    75 Crores

    (d)

    100 Crores or more

  69. The ________________ constitute the top administrative organ of the company.

    (a)

    general manager

    (b)

    Shareholders

    (c)

    body of directors

    (d)

    advisory panel

  70. Some information should be kept very confidential in all the 

    (a)

    Companies

    (b)

    Private institutions

    (c)

    Industries

    (d)

    Owners

  71. Who can call Extraordinary General meeting?

    (a)

    Company Law Tribunal

    (b)

    Board of Directors on its own or on the requisition of members

    (c)

    By the requisitionists themselves on Board's failure to convene

    (d)

    all of these

  72. ______________ meeting is conducted only once in the lifetime of the company.

    (a)

    Annual general

    (b)

    Statutory

    (c)

    Board

    (d)

    Committee

  73. Any resolution passed by a simple majority is an ____________

    (a)

    Ordinary resolution

    (b)

    Special resolution

    (c)

    Resolution requiring special notice

    (d)

    none of these

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