Plus One Public Exam March 2019 One Mark Question Paper

11th Standard

    Reg.No. :
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Biology

Time : 01:00:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 100
    100 x 1 = 100
  1. Identify the incorrect statement about the Gram positive bacteria

    (a)

    Techoic acid absent

    (b)

    High percentage of peptidoglycan is found in cell wall

    (c)

    Cell wall is single layered

    (d)

    Lipopolysaccharide is present in cell wall

  2. Identify the Archaebacterium

    (a)

    Acetobacter

    (b)

    Erwinia

    (c)

    Treponema

    (d)

    Methanobacterium

  3. Lichen which grown on rock is ________.

    (a)

    Tericolous

    (b)

    Lignicolous

    (c)

    Saxicolous

    (d)

    Corticolous

  4. Mycobacterium is a ___________ .

    (a)

    parasite

    (b)

    symbiont

    (c)

    saprophyte

    (d)

    free-living

  5. Which of the plant group has gametophyte as a dominant phase?

    (a)

    Pteridophytes

    (b)

    Bryophytes

    (c)

    Gymnosperm

    (d)

    Angiosperm

  6. The haploid number of chromosome for an Angiosperm is 14, the number of chromosome in its endosperm would be

    (a)

    7

    (b)

    14

    (c)

    42

    (d)

    28

  7. ________is not included pteridophytes.

    (a)

    Club moss

    (b)

    Quill worts

    (c)

    Kelps

    (d)

    Horsetails

  8. _____after fertilization becomes a seed.

    (a)

    Ovary

    (b)

    Megaspore

    (c)

    Ovule

    (d)

    Microsporangium

  9. When the root is thick and fleshy, but, does not taken a definite shape, it said to be

    (a)

    Nodulose root

    (b)

    Tuberous root

    (c)

    Monilliform root

    (d)

    Fasiculated root

  10. Example for negatively geotropic roots

    (a)

    Ipomoea, Dahlia

    (b)

    Asparagus, Ruellia

    (c)

    Vitis, Portulaca

    (d)

    Avicennia, Rhizophora

  11. (a) Beta vulgaris (i) Breathing root
    (b) Daucus carota (ii) Napiform root
    (c) Avicennia (iii) Fusiform root
    (d) Raphanus sativus (iv) Conical root
    (a)

    a-iv b-ii c-i d-iii

    (b)

    a-i b-ii c-iii d-iv

    (c)

    a-iv b-iii c-ii d-i

    (d)

    a-ii b-iv c-i d-iii

  12. Arrangement of veins on lamina is called_______________.

    (a)

    venation

    (b)

    estivation

    (c)

    placentation

    (d)

    phyllotaxy

  13. Gynoecium with united carpels is termed as

    (a)

    Apocarpous

    (b)

    Multicarpellary

    (c)

    Syncarpous

    (d)

    None of the above

  14. In an inflorescence where flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal succession the position of the youngest floral bud shall be

    (a)

    Proximal

    (b)

    Distal

    (c)

    Intercalary

    (d)

    Anywhere

  15. A plant with both pistillate and bisexual flowers _______________.

    (a)

    Monoecious

    (b)

    Dioecious

    (c)

    Andromonoecious

    (d)

    Gynomonoecious

  16. Base of anther is attached to the tip of filament___________.

    (a)

    Basifixed

    (b)

    Dorsifixed

    (c)

    Versatile

    (d)

    Adnate

  17. Phylogenetic classification is the most favoured classification because it reflects

    (a)

    Comparative Anatomy

    (b)

    Number of flowers produced

    (c)

    Comparative cytology

    (d)

    Evolutionary relationships

  18. The taxonomy which involves the similarities and dissimilarities among the immune system of different taxa is termed as

    (a)

    Chemotaxonomy

    (b)

    Molecular systematics

    (c)

    Serotaxonomy

    (d)

    Numerical taxonomy

  19. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogen fixing micro-organisms?

    (a)

    Crotalaria juncea

    (b)

    Cycas revoluta

    (c)

    Cicer arietinum

    (d)

    Casuarina equisetifolia

  20. Carolus Linnaeus was a ..............

    (a)

    British botanist

    (b)

    Indian botanist

    (c)

    German botanist

    (d)

    Swedish botanist

  21. _________ is largely used for population genetics studies.

    (a)

    Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism

    (b)

    Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA

    (c)

    DNA barcoding

    (d)

    Paul Hebert

  22. Duplicate specimen of holotype is

    (a)

    Lectotype

    (b)

    Isotype

    (c)

    Neotype

    (d)

    Syntype

  23. The two subunits of ribosomes remain united at critical ion level of

    (a)

    Magnesium

    (b)

    Calcium

    (c)

    Sodium

    (d)

    Ferrous

  24. Many cells function properly and divide mitotically even though they do not have

    (a)

    plasma membrane

    (b)

    cytoskeleton

    (c)

    mitochondria

    (d)

    plastids

  25. Match the columns and identify the correct option:

      Column I   Column II
    A Thylakoids 1. Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
    B. Cristae 2. Condensed structure of DNA
    C. Cisternae 3. Flat membranous sacs in stroma
    D Chromatin 4. Infoldings in mitochondria
    (a)
    A B C D
    3 4 2 1
    (b)
    A B C D
    4 3 1 2
    (c)
    A B C D
    3 4 1 2
    (d)
    A B C D
    3 1 4 2
  26. Match the following.

    A) Aristotle i) Animalcules
    B) Robert Hooke ii) Idea on Cell theory
    C) Antonie von Leeuwenhoek iii) Basic features of the cell theory
    D) Robert Brown animals and plants iv} First recognised that
    E) H. J. Dutrochet v) Cell division
    F) Theodor Schwann vi) Nucleus
    G) Rudolf Virchow vii) Micrographia
    (a)

    A - i), B - ii), C - iii), D - iv), E - v), F - vi), G -vii)

    (b)

    A - iv), B - vii), C - i), D - vi), E - ii), F - iii),G-v)

    (c)

    A -vii), B - vi), C - v), D - iv), E- ii), F - i)i G - iii)

    (d)

    A -iv), B - ii), C - i), D - iii), E - vii), F - vi),G - v)

  27. Elaioplasts store ____________

    (a)

    Starch

    (b)

    Lipid

    (c)

    Protein

    (d)

    Chlorophyll

  28. If mitotic division is restricted in G1 phase of the cell cycle then the condition is known as

    (a)

    S Phase

    (b)

    G2 Phase

    (c)

    M Phase

    (d)

    Go Phase

  29. The paring of homologous Chromosomes on meiosis is known as

    (a)

    Bivalent

    (b)

    Synapsis

    (c)

    Disjunction

    (d)

    Synergids

  30. The ________ is the organising centre of the cell.

    (a)

    Nucleus

    (b)

    Centromere

    (c)

    Chromatids

    (d)

    Cytokinesis

  31. ___________the spindle assembly checkpoint which decides the cell to enter anaphase.

    (a)

    Prophase

    (b)

    Metaphase

    (c)

    Anaphase

    (d)

    Telophase

  32. An example of feedback inhibition is

    (a)

    Cyanide action on cytochrome

    (b)

    Sulpha drug on folic acid synthesiser bacteria

    (c)

    Allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose - 6 - phosphate

    (d)

    The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate

  33. Proteins perform many physiological functions. For example some functions as enzymes. One of the following represents an additional function that some proteins discharge:

    (a)

    Antibiotics

    (b)

    Pigment conferring colour to skin

    (c)

    Pigments making colours of flowers

    (d)

    Hormones

  34. Enzyme and substrate complement each other like a ___________.

    (a)

    Pencil & eraser

    (b)

    Pen & Paper

    (c)

    Lock & key

    (d)

    all above

  35. Indicate the correct statement:

    (a)

    The rate of reaction is indirectly proportional to the enzyme concentration.

    (b)

    The rate of reaction is directly proportional to the enzyme concentration.

    (c)

    The rate of reaction is indirectly proportional to increase of temperature

    (d)

    None of the above.

  36. A group of organisms having similar traits of a rank is

    (a)

    Species

    (b)

    Taxon

    (c)

    Genus

    (d)

    Family

  37. Which taxonomic aid gives comprehensive information about a taxon?

    (a)

    Taxonomic Key

    (b)

    Herbarium

    (c)

    Flora

    (d)

    Monograph

  38. The binomial name of National animal of lndia is:

    (a)

    Panthera tigris

    (b)

    Corvus splendens

    (c)

    Felis domestica

    (d)

    Liger

  39. Origin of species is the book written by

    (a)

    John Ray

    (b)

    Charles Darwin

    (c)

    Linnaeus

    (d)

    Aristotle

  40. The symmetry exhibited in cnidarians is

    (a)

    Radial

    (b)

    Bilateral

    (c)

    Pentamerous radial

    (d)

    Asymmetrical

  41. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

    Column - I Column - II
    (p) Pila (i) Devil fish
    (q) Dentalium (ii) Chiton
    (r) Chaetopleura (iii) Apple snail
    (s) Octopus (iv) Tusk shell
    (a)

    p - (ii), q - (i), r - (iii), s - (iv)

    (b)

    p - (iii), q - (iv), r - (ii), s - (i)

    (c)

    p - (ii), q - (iv), r - (i), s - (iii)

    (d)

    p-(i), q-(ii), r-(iii), s-(iv)

  42. Which of the following is a excretory organ in mollusca?

    (a)

    Keber's organ

    (b)

    nephridia

    (c)

    Malphingan organ

    (d)

    Flame cells

  43. In sharks, one of the following is absent

    (a)

    Claspers

    (b)

    Placoid scales

    (c)

    Cartilaginous endoskeleton

    (d)

    Air bladder

  44. The ciliated epithelium lines the

    (a)

    Skin

    (b)

    Digestive tract

    (c)

    Gall bladder

    (d)

    Trachea

  45. Prevention of substances from leaking across the tissue is provided by

    (a)

    Tight junction

    (b)

    Adhering junction

    (c)

    Gap junction

    (d)

    Elastic junction

  46. Salivary gland is __________ .

    (a)

    Unicellular, glandular cells

    (b)

    Multicellular, glandular cells

    (c)

    Unicellular, sensory cells

    (d)

    Multicellular, sensory cells

  47. The walls of the Bronchial tubes have __________.

    (a)

    Dense irregular connective tissues

    (b)

    Reticular connective tissue

    (c)

    elastic connective tissue

    (d)

    Adipose tissue

  48. The head region of Cockroach __________________ pairs of _____________ and shaped eyes occur

    (a)

    One pair, sessile compound and kidney shaped

    (b)

    Two pairs, stalked compound and round shaped

    (c)

    Many pairs, sessile simple and kidney shaped

    (d)

    Many pairs, stalked compound and kidney shaped

  49. How many abdominal segments are present in male and female Cockroaches?

    (a)

    10, 10

    (b)

    9, 10

    (c)

    8, 10

    (d)

    9,9

  50. Match the following and choose the correct answer:

    Photoreceptors detect chemical changes
    Gustatory sense of touch
    Chemoreceptors sense of smell
    Olfactory receptors sense of taste
    Tactile receptors sense of light
    (a)

    (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii), (e)-(ii)

    (b)

    (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i), (e)-(v)

    (c)

    (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)~ (d)-(v), (e)-(iv)

    (d)

    (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(v), (e)-(i)

  51. The zoological name of the cockroach is

    (a)

    Periplaneta americana

    (b)

    Lampito mauritti

    (c)

    Rana hexadactyla

    (d)

    Metaphire posthuma

  52. Absorption of glycerol, fatty acids and monoglycerides takes place by

    (a)

    Lymph vessels within villi

    (b)

    Walls of stomach

    (c)

    Colon

    (d)

    Capillaries within villi

  53. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option

    Column I Column II
    (P) Small intestine i) 23 cm
    (Q) Large intestine ii) 4 meter
    (R) Oesophagus iii) 12.5 cm
    (S) Pharynx iv) 1.5 meter
    (a)
    P Q R S
    iv ii i iii
    (b)
    P Q R S
    ii iv i iii
    (c)
    P Q R S
    i iii ii iv
    (d)
    P Q R S
    iii i ii iv
  54. Peyer's patches produce_______________

    (a)

    monocytes

    (b)

    lymphocytes

    (c)

    basophils

    (d)

    neutrophils

  55. Enzyme lactase occurs in

    (a)

    Saliva

    (b)

    Pancreatic juice

    (c)

    Intestinal juice

    (d)

    Stomach

  56. Which ones are bile salts

    (a)

    Haemoglobin and biliverdine

    (b)

    Bilirubin and biliverdine

    (c)

    Bilirubin and Haemoglobin

    (d)

    Sodium glycolate and taurocholate

  57. Breathing is controlled by

    (a)

    cerebrum

    (b)

    medulla oblongata

    (c)

    cerebellum

    (d)

    pons

  58. During inspiration, the diaphragm

    (a)

    expands

    (b)

    unchanged

    (c)

    relaxes to become dome-shaped

    (d)

    contracts and flatten

  59. Which of the following is incorrect with regard to the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the alveoli?

    (a)

    high pCO2

    (b)

    less H+ concentration

    (c)

    low pCO2

    (d)

    low temperature

  60. Gradual break down of the thin walls of the alveoli decreasing the total surface area of the gaseous exchange is

    (a)

    bronchitis

    (b)

    emphysema

    (c)

    asthma

    (d)

    tuberculosis

  61. Lymph is colourless because

    (a)

    WBC are absent

    (b)

    WBC are present

    (c)

    Haemoglobin is absent

    (d)

    RBC are absent

  62. A patient's chart reveals that he has a cardiac output of 7500mL per minute and a stroke volume of 50 mL. What is his pulse rate (in beats/min)?

    (a)

    50

    (b)

    100

    (c)

    150

    (d)

    400

  63. The amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute is called :

    (a)

    pulse pressure

    (b)

    cardiac output

    (c)

    stroke volume

    (d)

    heart rate

  64. What P indicates in ECG?

    (a)

    End of atrium systole

    (b)

    Starting of atrium systole

    (c)

    End of ventricle systole

    (d)

    Starting of ventricle systole

  65. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is , surviving only on water, will have

    (a)

    Less amino acids in his urine

    (b)

    Macula densa cells

    (c)

    Less urea in his urine

    (d)

    More sodium in his urine

  66. Animal requiring minimum amount of water to produce urine are

    (a)

    ureotelic

    (b)

    ammonotelic

    (c)

    uricotelic

    (d)

    chemotelic

  67. The ureter, blood vessels enter the kidney through_____________

    (a)

    Hilum

    (b)

    Renal columns of Bertini

    (c)

    Hilus

    (d)

    Renal pelvis

  68. ________________is not a symptom of glomerulonephritis.

    (a)

    Hypertension

    (b)

    Haematuria

    (c)

    Proteinuria

    (d)

    Renal colic pain

  69. The pigment present in the muscle fibre to store oxygen is

    (a)

    myoglobin

    (b)

    troponin

    (c)

    myosin

    (d)

    actin

  70. Each skeletal muscle is covered by

    (a)

    epimysium

    (b)

    perimysium

    (c)

    endomysium

    (d)

    hypomysium

  71. There are about _____________muscles in our body.

    (a)

    500

    (b)

    530

    (c)

    640

    (d)

    620

  72. Gout is caused due to accumulation of ______________in the joints.

    (a)

    urea

    (b)

    troponin

    (c)

    uric acid

    (d)

    glycosomes

  73. Which of the following pairings is correct?

    (a)

    Sensory nerve - afferent

    (b)

    Motor nerve - afferent

    (c)

    Sensory nerve - ventral

    (d)

    Motor nerve - dorsal

  74. Which of the following statement concerning the somatic division of the peripheral neural system is incorrect?

    (a)

    Its pathways innervate skeletal muscles

    (b)

    Its pathways are usually voluntary

    (c)

    Some of its pathways are referred to as reflex arcs

    (d)

    Its pathways always involve four neurons

  75. Match the following:

    A. Malleus i. Stirrup bone
    B. Scala media ii. Anvil bone
    C. Incus iii. Hammer bone
    D. Stapes iv. Endolymph
    (a)
    A B C D
    iii iv ii i
    (b)
    A B C D
    i ii iii iv
    (c)
    A B C D
    iii ii i iv
    (d)
    A B C D
    iv i iii ii
  76. Assertion (A): The inner ear acts as an organ of balance.
    Reason (R): It contains the ear ossicles.

    (a)

    A and R are wrong

    (b)

    R explains A

    (c)

    A and R are right but R does not explain A

    (d)

    A is right, R is wrong

  77. Which of the following hormone is not secreted under the influence of pituitary gland?

    (a)

    Thyroxine

    (b)

    Insulin

    (c)

    Oestrogen

    (d)

    Glucocorticoids

  78. A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of

    (a)

    Low secretion of growth hormone

    (b)

    Cancer of the thyroid gland

    (c)

    Over secretion of pars distalis

    (d)

    Deficiency of iodine in diet

  79. The neurohypophysis is otherwise known as________________

    (a)

    pars distalis

    (b)

    pars nervosa

    (c)

    pars intermedia

    (d)

    pars tuberalis

  80. _______________is also called stress combat hormone.

    (a)

    Adrenalin

    (b)

    Cortisol

    (c)

    Epinephrine

    (d)

    Aldosterone

  81. Aquaponics is a technique which is

    (a)

    A combination of aquaculture and fish culture

    (b)

    A combination of aquaculture and hydroponics

    (c)

    A combination of vermiculture and hydroponics

    (d)

    A combination of aquaculture and prawn culture

  82. Assertion: The best quality of the pearl is known as Iingha pearl and obtained from marine oysters.
    Reason: Nacre is secreted continuously by the epithelial layer of the mantle and deposited around the foreign particle.

    (a)

    Assertion is true, Reason is false

    (b)

    Assertion and Reason are false

    (c)

    Assertion is false But Reason is true

    (d)

    Assertion and Reason are true

  83. ___________ is called African bee.

    (a)

    Apis indica

    (b)

    Apis dorsata

    (c)

    Apis adamsoni

    (d)

    Apis mellifera

  84. The silk glands are ___________ glands

    (a)

    sweat glands

    (b)

    salivary glands

    (c)

    oral glands

    (d)

    digestive glands

  85. Refer to the given figure and select the correct statement

    i. A, B, and C are histogen of shoot apex. 
    ii. A Gives rise to medullary rays.
    iii. B Gives rise to the cortex. 
    iv. C Gives rise to epidermis

    (a)

    i and ii only

    (b)

    ii and iii only

    (c)

    i and iii only

    (d)

    iii and iv only

  86. Grafting is successful in dicots but not in monocots because the dicots have

    (a)

    Vascular bundles arranged in a ring

    (b)

    Cambium for secondary growth

    (c)

    Vessels with elements arranged end to end

    (d)

    Cork cambium

  87. Usually, the monocotyledons do not increase their girth, because

    (a)

    They possess actively dividing cambium

    (b)

    They do not possess actively dividing cambium

    (c)

    Ceases activity of cambium

    (d)

    All are correct

  88. The common bottle cork is a product of

    (a)

    Dermatogen

    (b)

    Phellogen

    (c)

    Xylem

    (d)

    Vascular cambium

  89. In a fully turgid cell

    (a)

    DPD = 10 atm; OP = 5 atm; TP = 10 atm

    (b)

    DPD = 0 atm; OP = 10 atm; TP = 10 atm

    (c)

    DPD = 0 atm; OP = 5 atm; TP = 10 atm

    (d)

    DPD = 20 atm; OP = 20 atm; TP = 10 atm

  90. Which among the following is correct?
    i. apoplast is fastest and operate in nonliving part. 
    ii. The transmembrane route includes vacuole.
    iii. symplast interconnect the nearby cell through plasmadesmata.
    iv. symplast and transmembrane route are in living part of the cell

    (a)

    i and ii

    (b)

    ii and iii

    (c)

    iii and iv

    (d)

    i, ii, iii, iv

  91. Identify correct match:

    1. Die back disease of citrus (i) Mo
    2. Whip tail disease (ii) Zn
    3. Brown heart of turnip (iii) Cu
    4. Little leaf (iv) B
    (a)

    1(iii) 2 (ii) 3 (iv) 4 (i)

    (b)

    1 (iii) 2 (i) 3 (iv) 4 (ii)

    (c)

    1 (i) 2 (iii) 3 (ii) 4 (iv)

    (d)

    1 (iii) 2 (iv) 3 (ii) 4 (i)

  92. Match the correct combination

      Minerals   Role
    A Molybdenum 1 Chlorophyll
    B Zinc 2 Methionine
    C Magnesium 3 Auxin
    D Sulphur 4 Nitrogenase
    (a)
    A B C D
    1 3 4 2
    (b)
    A B C D
    2 1 3 4
    (c)
    A B C D
    4 3 1 2
    (d)
    A B C D
    4 2 1 3
  93. The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light reaction is

    (a)

    PS II, plastoquinone, cytochrome, PS I, ferredoxin.

    (b)

    PS I, plastoquinone, cytochrome, PS II ferredoxin.

    (c)

    PS II, ferredoxin, plastoquinone, cytochrome, PS I.

    (d)

    PS I, plastoquinone, cytochrome, PS II, ferredoxin.

  94. Identify true statement regarding the light reaction of photosynthesis?

    (a)

    Splitting of water molecule is associate with PS I.

    (b)

    PS I and PS II involved in the formation of NDPH + H+

    (c)

    The reaction center of PS I is Chlorophyll a with the absorption peak at 680 nm.

    (d)

    The reaction center of PS II is Chlorophyll a with the absorption peak at 700 nm.

  95. The number of ATP molecules formed by complete oxidation of one molecule of pyruvic acid is

    (a)

    12

    (b)

    13

    (c)

    14

    (d)

    15

  96. During oxidation of two molecules of cytosolic NADH + H+, number of ATP molecules produced in plants are

    (a)

    3

    (b)

    4

    (c)

    6

    (d)

    8

  97. Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation takes place during the electron transport chain in mitochondria.
    Reason (R): Succinyl CoA is phosphorylated into succinic acid by substrate phosphorylation.

    (a)

    A and R is correct. R is correct explanation of A

    (b)

    A and R is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

    (c)

    A is correct but R is wrong

    (d)

    A and R is wrong.

  98. If the diameter of the pulley is 6 inches, length of the pointer is 10 inches and distance travelled by pointer is 5 inches. Calculate the actual growth in length of plant.

    (a)

    3 inches

    (b)

    6 inches

    (c)

    12 inches

    (d)

    30 inches

  99. Select the correctly matched one

    A) Human urine i) Auxin –B
    B) Corn gram oil ii) GA3
    C) Fungus iii) Abscisic acid II
    D) Herring fish sperm iv) Kinitin
    E) Unripe maize grains v) Auxin A
    F) Young cotton bolls vi) Zeatin
    (a)
    A B C D E F
    iii iv v vi i ii
    (b)
    A B C D E F
    v i ii iv vi iii
    (c)
    A B C D E F
    iii v vi i ii iv
    (d)
    A B C D E F
    ii iii v vi iv i
  100. Seed dormancy allows the plants to

    (a)

    overcome unfavourable climatic conditions

    (b)

    develop healthy seeds

    (c)

    reduce viability

    (d)

    prevent deterioration of seeds

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