New ! Biology MCQ Practise Tests



Sample 1 Mark Creative Questions (New Syllabus) 2020

12th Standard

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Biology

Time : 00:50:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 59

    Part A

    59 x 1 = 59
  1. Plasmotomy is observed in ________

    (a)

    Giant Amoeba

    (b)

    Hydra

    (c)

    Plasmodium

    (d)

    Ceratium

  2. In honey bees, the mode of reproduction is

    (a)

    Sexual and Asexual

    (b)

    Sexual and Parthenogenesis

    (c)

    Asexual and Parthenogenesis

    (d)

    All the above

  3. Given below, are a few statements related to external fertilization. Choose the correct statements:
    i. The male and female gametes are formed and released simultaneously
    ii. Only a few gametes are released into the medium
    iii. Water is the medium in a majority of organism exhibiting external fertilization
    iv. Offspring formed as a result of external fertilization have better chance of survival than those formed inside the organism

    (a)

    iii and iv

    (b)

    i and iii

    (c)

    ii and iv

    (d)

    i and iv

  4. Spermatid \(\overset { A }{ \rightarrow }\) Spermatozoa what does 'A' stands for?

    (a)

    Spermatogenesis

    (b)

    Spermiation

    (c)

    Spermiogenesis

    (d)

    Gametogenesis

  5. ______ is a hormone produced by sertoli cells.

    (a)

    Inhibin

    (b)

    Progesterone

    (c)

    Testosterone

    (d)

    Oestrogen

  6. _____ is a hormone secreted by the placenta and also found in the corpus luteum

    (a)

    Oxytocin

    (b)

    Relaxin

    (c)

    Inhibin

    (d)

    Testosterone

  7. Assertion (A): Human ovum is non - cleidoic
    Reason (R): Human does not contain yolk.

    (a)

    R explains A

    (b)

    A is right, R is wrong

    (c)

    A and R are right. R does not explain A.

    (d)

    Both A and R are wrong

  8. Statement (1): Siamese twins are conjoined twins who are joined during birth.
    Statement (2): Dizygotic twins will be of same sex

    (a)

    Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.

    (b)

    Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.

    (c)

    Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    (d)

    Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

  9. Select the proper harmonal Composition of oral Contraceptive pills

    (a)

    FSH and Prolactin

    (b)

    prolactin & TSH

    (c)

    TSH & FSH

    (d)

    FSH & LH

  10. Cryopreservation of embryos are done when _____

    (a)

    When eggs are not available

    (b)

    Sperm count is less

    (c)

    More embryos are available than the required

    (d)

    there is abnormality in the embryo

  11. This technique is used to diagnose the chromosomal abnormities.

    (a)

    Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)

    (b)

    Micro Testicular Sperm Extraction

    (c)

    Amniocentesis

    (d)

    GIFT

  12. _____ is an example of a contraceptive pill.

    (a)

    Alesse

    (b)

    Ortho Tri-cyclen

    (c)

    Saheli

    (d)

    Eryosterol

  13. ____________ is a condition in which there is absence of spermatozoa in the ejaculate serum

    (a)

    teratozoospermia

    (b)

    Asthenozoospermia

    (c)

    Oligozoospermia

    (d)

    Azoospermia

  14. Assertion (A): IUD's are inserted in the ovary.
    Reason (R): IUD's Increases phagocytosis of the sperm.
    Codes:
    (a) Both A and R are correct
    (b) Both A and R are incorrect
    (c) A is correct R is incorrect
    (d) A is incorrect R is correct

    (a)

    Both A and R are correct

    (b)

    Both A and R are incorrect

    (c)

    A is correct R is incorrect

    (d)

    A is incorrect R is correct

  15. The inheritance of blood group is determined by multiple alleles as discovered by _________.

    (a)

    Landsteiner

    (b)

    Bernstein

    (c)

    Alexander castelle

    (d)

    lyon

  16. Trisomy 21 refers to ___________.

    (a)

    Patau's syndrome

    (b)

    Down's syndrome

    (c)

    Kline filters syndrome

    (d)

    Turners syndrome

  17. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I, It has three alleles - IA, IB and i. Since there are three different alleles) six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes can occur?

    (a)

    Three

    (b)

    One 

    (c)

    Four

    (d)

    Two

  18. A colorblind man marries a woman with normal sight who has no history of color blindness in her family. What is the probability of their grandson being colorblind?

    (a)

    1/4

    (b)

    3/4

    (c)

    2/4

    (d)

    4/4

  19. Human Genome was sequenced in ________.

    (a)

    1979

    (b)

    2015

    (c)

    1989

    (d)

    2001

  20. Chromosome __________ has 231 genes only.

    (a)

    X

    (b)

    19

    (c)

    Y

    (d)

    22

  21. Pick out the incorrect statement

    (a)

    tRNA acts as an adapter molecule

    (b)

    Stop codons do not have tRNA's

    (c)

    Addition of amino acid leads to hydrolysis of tRNA

    (d)

    tRNA has four major loops

  22. Origin of fishes occurred in ___________ period

    (a)

    Devonian

    (b)

    Silurian

    (c)

    Cambrian

    (d)

    Permian

  23. This is a waveform of selection but leads to formation of two or more different species

    (a)

    Adaptive radiation

    (b)

    Directional selection

    (c)

    Centipetal selection

    (d)

    Stabilizing selection

  24. Atavism refers to ____________

    (a)

    Inheritance oftriat by mother

    (b)

    Inheritance of trial by father

    (c)

    Criss-cross inheritance

    (d)

    Inheritance of characters not shown by parents

  25. Yellowish eyes is a symptom of_______

    (a)

    Plague

    (b)

    Measles

    (c)

    Hepatitis

    (d)

    Sleeping sickness

  26. Identify the wrong statement regarding polio disease.

    (a)

    Polio is caused by a RNA virus

    (b)

    One of the infection site of polio is intestine

    (c)

    Culex mosquito acts as a vector for polio.

    (d)

    Paralysis and respiratory failure are the symptoms.

  27. _________is used for recycling of PET plastics

    (a)

    Dechloromonas aromatica

    (b)

    Phanerochaete chrysosporium

    (c)

    Ideonella sakaiensis

    (d)

    Nitrosomonas

  28. Find the odd sentence out.
    (i) Biogas primarily consists of methane with CO2 and hydrogen
    (ii) The greater the BOD of wastewater the more its polluting potential
    (iii) World biofuel day is observed on 10th August
    (iv) Cyclosporin A is obtained from Trichoderma polysporum.

    (a)

    i and iii

    (b)

    ii and iv

    (c)

    i and iv

    (d)

    none of the above

  29. _________is not linked to IPR.

    (a)

    Patents

    (b)

    Copy rights

    (c)

    GI

    (d)

    trademarks

  30. ___________among the following will not serve as store house of stem cell.

    (a)

    Blood

    (b)

    Bone marrow

    (c)

    Amniotic fluid

    (d)

    Placenta

  31. Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?

    (a)

    5' - CGTTCG - 3' 3' -ATGGTA -5'

    (b)

    5'-GATATG -3' 3' CTACTA -5'

    (c)

    5' -GAATTC - 3' 3' - CTTAAG-5'

    (d)

    5' -CACGTA -3' 3' -CTCAGT -5'

  32. The gene for the formation of factor VIII is located in________ 

    (a)

    20th Chromosome

    (b)

    12th Chromosome

    (c)

    X-chromosome

    (d)

    Y-chromosome

  33. 1000 fish in the volume of water in the pond indicates _____________________

    (a)

    Relative abundance

    (b)

    Ecological density

    (c)

    Crude density

    (d)

    Population density

  34. Functional status of an organism in its community is _______________

    (a)

    Biome

    (b)

    Niche

    (c)

    Species

    (d)

    Population

  35. ___________ is not a exotic species.

    (a)

    Amazon sailfin catfish

    (b)

    Mealy Bug

    (c)

    Narcondam horn bills

    (d)

    Achatina fulica

  36. Statement 1: Exotic species are the non-native organism.
    Statement 2: Sailfin catfish is an exotic species to India

    (a)

    Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 in incorrect

    (b)

    Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 in correct

    (c)

    Both the statements are correct

    (d)

    Both the statements are incorrect

  37. PCB is a major component of ______________

    (a)

    e-waste

    (b)

    Agro waste

    (c)

    sewage

    (d)

    Plastics

  38. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in:

    (a)

    Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom

    (b)

    Increased population of aquatic food web organisms

    (c)

    An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients

    (d)

    Death of fish due to lack of oxygen

  39. Which is not a method of disposal of radioactive waste.

    (a)

    Dilute and dispense

    (b)

    Delay and decay

    (c)

    Recycle and reuse

    (d)

    Limit generation

  40. Statement (1): The intensity of noise is measured in dobson (dB) unit.
    Statement (2): Noise provides immense bliss.

    (a)

    Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false

    (b)

    Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true

    (c)

    Both Statements 1 and 2 are true

    (d)

    Both statements 1 and 2 are false

  41. Which of the following characters does not exist in Ornithophilous flowers?

    (a)

    Huge sized flowers

    (b)

    Bright coloured

    (c)

    Scented flowers

    (d)

    Nectar is secreted in large

  42. Statement 1: The pollen grains are deposited on the receptive surface of style.
    Statement 2: After landing, the first visible change in pollen is hydration.

    (a)

    Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

    (b)

    Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

    (c)

    Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    (d)

    Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

  43. Assertion (A): Fusion of male and female gametes results in zygote.
    Reason (R): Product of triple fusion is PEN.

    (a)

    A is correct R is incorrect.

    (b)

    R explains A.

    (c)

    Both A and R are incorrect.

    (d)

    Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A.

  44. The white edible part of coconut is __________________

    (a)

    Epicarp

    (b)

    Endosperm

    (c)

    Embryo

    (d)

    Mesocarp

  45. In monoecious plants,

    (a)

    Both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented

    (b)

    Both autogamy and geitonogamy are takes place

    (c)

    Autogamy takes place preventing geitonogamy

    (d)

    Autogamy is prevented whereas geitonogamy takes place

  46. Gregor Mendel ___________
    (i) was born in Czechoslovakia
    (ii) did his experiments in Pisum fulvum
    (iii) was the first systemic researcher in genetics
    (iv) Published his results in the paper "Experiments on Plant Hybrids"

    (a)

    All are correct

    (b)

    (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct

    (c)

    (i), (iii),(iv) are correct

    (d)

    (i), (iii), (iv) are correct

  47. RR (Red) flower of Mirabilis is crossed with White (WW) flowers. Resultant offspring are pink RW. This is an example of __________

    (a)

    Epistasis

    (b)

    Co-dominance

    (c)

    Incomplete dominance

    (d)

    Pleiotropism

  48. Statement 1: Euploidy involves entire sets of chromosomes
    Statement 2: Aneuploidy involves individual chromosomes within a diploid net.

    (a)

    Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect

    (b)

    Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct

    (c)

    Both the statements are correct

    (d)

    Both the statements are incorrect

  49. Dimethyl sulphoxide is a _________.

    (a)

    Solidifying agent

    (b)

    Cryoprotectant

    (c)

    Fusogenic agent

    (d)

    Stimulant

  50. Statement 1: Holoparsites depend totally on other organisms for nutrition.
    Statement 2: Durnta is holoparasite.

    (a)

    Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.

    (b)

    Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct

    (c)

    Both the statements are correct.

    (d)

    Both the statements are incorrect

  51. Which group of organism occupies the third tropic level in an ecosystem?

    (a)

    Primary consumers

    (b)

    Secondary consumers

    (c)

    Secondary carnivores

    (d)

    Omnivores

  52. Which of the following is abundant in rock deposits and guano?

    (a)

    Nitrogen

    (b)

    Phosphorous

    (c)

    Oxygen

    (d)

    Calcium

  53. The total ozone layer over the earth surface is ____________________

    (a)

    30 DU

    (b)

    300 DU

    (c)

    3000 DU

    (d)

    0.3 DU

  54. EIA stands for ________________

    (a)

    Ecological Information Analysis

    (b)

    Environmental Information Assessment

    (c)

    Environmental Impact Analysis

    (d)

    Environmental Impact Assessment

  55. Azolla is best suited biofertilizer for _________

    (a)

    Sugar cane cultivation

    (b)

    Paddy cultivation

    (c)

    Wheat cultivation

    (d)

    Cotton cultivation

  56. The first established Atomic Garden in India was _________

    (a)

    Bhabha Atomic Research Institute

    (b)

    Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research

    (c)

    Indian Agricultural Research Institute

    (d)

    Bose Research Institute

  57. Pigeon pea is the common name for _______

    (a)

     Vigna radiata  

    (b)

    Vigna mungo

    (c)

     Cajanus cajan  

    (d)

    Sorghum vulgare

  58. Enhanced attachment is also known as ________

    (a)

    Opsonisation

    (b)

    Precipitation

    (c)

    agglutination

    (d)

    neutralisation

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