New ! Biology MCQ Practise Tests



Full Portion - Important One Mark Question Paper

11th Standard

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Biology

Time : 01:30:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 100

    Multiple Choice Question

    100 x 1 = 100
  1. The correct statement regarding Blue green algae is ______.

    (a)

    lack of motile structures

    (b)

    presence of cellulose in cell wall

    (c)

    absence of mucilage around the thallus

    (d)

    presence of floridean starch

  2. Identify the correctly matched pair.

    (a)

    Actinomycete - Late blight

    (b)

    Mycoplasma - Lumpy jaw

    (c)

    Bacteria - Crown gall

    (d)

    Fungi - Sandal spike

  3. Who coined the word Bacterium?

    (a)

    Christian Gram

    (b)

    C.G.Ehrenberg

    (c)

    Griffith

    (d)

    Lederberg

  4. In the year 1911, the classification of viruses is given by ____________.

    (a)

    David Baltimore

    (b)

    Staley

    (c)

    Twort

    (d)

    d'Herelle

  5. Which of following represents gametophytic generation in pteridophytes?

    (a)

    Prothallus

    (b)

    Thallus

    (c)

    Cone

    (d)

    Rhizophore

  6. In gymnosperm endosperm is formed_______.

    (a)

    At the time of fertilization

    (b)

    Before fertilization

    (c)

    After fertilization

    (d)

    Along with the development of embryo

  7. Xylem vessels are seen in ____

    (a)

    Selaginella

    (b)

    Gnetum

    (c)

    Cycas

    (d)

    Pinus

  8. Monocolpate pollen is present in ___________ .

    (a)

    Dicot

    (b)

    Monocot

    (c)

    Gymnosperms

    (d)

    Pteridophytes

  9. Example for negatively geotropic roots __________

    (a)

    Ipomoea, Dahlia

    (b)

    Asparagus, Ruellia

    (c)

    Vitis, Portulaca

    (d)

    Avicennia, Rhizophora

  10. Curcuma amada, Curcuma domestica, Asparagus, Maranta are example of __________

    (a)

    Tuberous root

    (b)

    Beaded root

    (c)

    Moniliform root

    (d)

    Nodulose root

  11. Mesophytes grows on____________.

    (a)

    sand

    (b)

    soils with sufficient water

    (c)

    rocks

    (d)

    dry habitats

  12. Cauline buds arise from____________

    (a)

    root

    (b)

    stem

    (c)

    leaf

    (d)

    nodes

  13. Aggregate fruit develops from _____.

    (a)

    Multicarpellary, apocarpous ovary

    (b)

    Multicarpellary, syncarpous ovary

    (c)

    Multicarpellary ovary

    (d)

    Whole inflorescence

  14. A true fruit is the one where ______.

    (a)

    Only ovary of the flower develops into fruit

    (b)

    Ovary and calyx of the flower develops into fruit

    (c)

    Ovary, calyx and thalamus of the flower develops into fruit

    (d)

    All floral whorls of the flower develops into fruit

  15. ___________is true cyme.

    (a)

    Simple dichasium

    (b)

    Compound dichasium

    (c)

    Polychasial cyme

    (d)

    Thyrsus

  16. Dehiscence through terminal pores_____________.

    (a)

    Septifragal

    (b)

    Poricidal

    (c)

    Denticidal

    (d)

    Circumscissile

  17. The taxonomy which involves the similarities & dissimilarities among the immune system of different taxa is termed as ______.

    (a)

    Chemotaxonomy

    (b)

    Molecular systematics

    (c)

    Serotaxonomy

    (d)

    Numerical taxonomy

  18. Perianth is present in_______.

    (a)

    Clitoria ternatea

    (b)

    Datura metal

    (c)

    Allium cepa

    (d)

    Pongamia pinnata

  19. Flowers are zygomorphic in ______.

    (a)

    Ceropegia

    (b)

    Thevetia

    (c)

    Datura

    (d)

    Solanum

  20. Binomial system of nomenclature was introduced by ...........

    (a)

    Linnaeus

    (b)

    Bauhin

    (c)

    De condolle

    (d)

    Engler

  21. Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of ____________

    (a)

    Aloe

    (b)

    tomato

    (c)

    tulip

    (d)

    Indigofera

  22. Scapigerous inflorescence is seen in __________.

    (a)

    Allium sativum

    (b)

    Allium cepa

    (c)

    Aloevera

    (d)

    Maenodorum

  23. The two subunits of ribosomes remain united at critical ion level of _______.

    (a)

    Magnesium

    (b)

    Calcium

    (c)

    Sodium

    (d)

    Ferrous

  24. Sequences of which of the following is used to know the phylogeny.

    (a)

    mRNA

    (b)

    rRNA

    (c)

    tRNA

    (d)

    HnRNA

  25. Many cells function properly and divide mitotically even though they do not have.

    (a)

    plasma membrane

    (b)

    cytoskeleton

    (c)

    mitochondria

    (d)

    plastids

  26. Microtubules are made up of a protein called ________.

    (a)

    Myosin

    (b)

    Nexin

    (c)

    Actin

    (d)

    Durable protein

  27. _____________________________the kinetochore is assembled as a result of protein recognition of specific DNA sequences.

    (a)

    Holocentric chromosomes

    (b)

    Point centromere

    (c)

    Localized centromere

    (d)

    Regional centromere

  28. If mitotic division is restricted in G1 phase of the cell cycle then the condition is known as _____.

    (a)

    S Phase

    (b)

    G2 Phase

    (c)

    M Phase

    (d)

    G0 Phase

  29. Centromere is required for ______.

    (a)

    transcription

    (b)

    crossing over

    (c)

    cytoplasmic cleavage

    (d)

    movement of chromosome towards pole

  30. The daughter cells contain half the number of chromosomes ___________ .

    (a)

    Centromere

    (b)

    Homologous pairs

    (c)

    Chromatids

    (d)

    Haploid state

  31. The DNA protein complex present in the centromere is __________ .

    (a)

    Cyclin

    (b)

    Kinesis

    (c)

    MPF

    (d)

    Kinetochore

  32. Enzymes that catalyse interconversion of optical, geometrical or positional isomers are ______________

    (a)

    Ligases

    (b)

    Lyases

    (c)

    Hydrolases

    (d)

    Isomerases

  33. Proteins perform many physiological functions. For example some functions as enzymes. One of the following represents an additional function that some proteins discharge:

    (a)

    Antibiotics

    (b)

    Pigment conferring colour to skin

    (c)

    Pigments making colours of flowers

    (d)

    Hormones

  34. Two amino acids can react together with the loss of water to form a ________________

    (a)

    Peptide bond

    (b)

    Dipeptide

    (c)

    Polypeptides

    (d)

    Insulin protein

  35. ____________________is an active enzyme with its non-protein component.

    (a)

    Apoenzyme

    (b)

    Holoenzyme

    (c)

    Coenzymes

    (d)

    Enzymes

  36. Every unit of classification regardless of its rank is _____.

    (a)

    Taxon

    (b)

    Variety

    (c)

    Species

    (d)

    Strain

  37. Cladogram considers the following characters _______.

    (a)

    Physiological and Biochemical

    (b)

    Evolutionary and Phylogenetic

    (c)

    Taxonimic and systematic

    (d)

    None of the above

  38. _______ is called as father of taxonomy.

    (a)

    Carolus Linnaeus

    (b)

    Aristotle

    (c)

    Theophrastus

    (d)

    John Ray

  39. DAISY, the cyber tool is ____________

    (a)

    Digital automated identification system

    (b)

    Digital automated information system

    (c)

    Direct automated identification system

    (d)

    Digital automated identification science

  40. Sea squirts refers to______________

    (a)

    Hemichordates

    (b)

    Vertebrates

    (c)

    Jelly fishes

    (d)

    Urochordates

  41. Which of the following is the adaptation of flatworms for the endoparasitic mode of life?

    (a)

    They are dorsoventrally flattened

    (b)

    They have hooks, suckers or both

    (c)

    Their body is not segmented

    (d)

    They reproduce sexually

  42. Fasciola hepatica is

    (a)

    hermaphrodite. Self fertilizing

    (b)

    hermaphrodite, cross fertilizing

    (c)

    unisexual

    (d)

    both (a) and (b)

  43. The character of birds without exception is ________

    (a)

    omnivorous

    (b)

    beak without teeth

    (c)

    flying wings

    (d)

    lay eggs with calcareous shells

  44. Name the disease in which the person finds it difficult to remember recent events and has mood swings

    (a)

    Parkinson's disease

    (b)

    Ehler's Danlos syndrome

    (c)

    Alzheimer's disease

    (d)

    Sjogren's syndrome

  45. Find out the wrong match:

    (a)

    Eosinophils Allergic response

    (b)

    Basophils Secrete histamine and serotonin

    (c)

    Monocytes Secrete heparin

    (d)

    Lymphocytes Immune response

  46. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are knows to occur in _________

    (a)

    Bile duct and oesophagus

    (b)

    Fallopian tubes and urethra

    (c)

    Eustachian tube and stomach lining

    (d)

    Bronchioles and fallopian tubes

  47. Which of the following is not exocrine gland?

    (a)

    Sweat glands

    (b)

    Sebaceous glands

    (c)

    Mammary glands

    (d)

    Thyroid gland

  48. Buccopharyngeal respiration in frog ______.

    (a)

    is increased when nostrils are closed

    (b)

    Stops when there is pulmonary respiration

    (c)

    is increased when it is catching fly

    (d)

    stops when mouth is opened.

  49. Choose the wrong statement among the following :

    (a)

    In earthworm, a single male genital pore is present.

    (b)

    Setae help in locomotion of earthworms.

    (c)

    Muscular layer in the body wall of earthworm is made up of circular muscles only

    (d)

    Typhlosole is part of the intestine of earthworm

  50. In earthworm the female genital aperture lies on the ventral side in the ___________ segment.

    (a)

    15th

    (b)

    14th

    (c)

    10th

    (d)

    12th

  51. The egg case of cockroach is called _________

    (a)

    Collateral glands

    (b)

    spermathecae

    (c)

    vagina

    (d)

    Ootheca

  52. Enterokinase takes part in the conversion of ______.

    (a)

    Pepsinogen into pepsin

    (b)

    Trypsinogen into trypsin

    (c)

    Protein into polypeptide

    (d)

    Caseinogen into casein

  53. Assertion : (A) Large intestine also shows the presence of villi like small intestine.
    Reason : (B) Absorption of water takes place in large intestine.

    (a)

    Both A and B are true and B is the correct explanation of A

    (b)

    Both A and B are true but B is not the correct explanation of A

    (c)

    A is true but B is false

    (d)

    A is false but B is true

  54. Deglutition refers to ________________

    (a)

    swallowing

    (b)

    assimilation

    (c)

    absorption

    (d)

    egestion

  55. Reverse peristals is refers to ______________

    (a)

    Swallowing

    (b)

    Egestion

    (c)

    Vomiting

    (d)

    Coughing

  56. Masticated food particles passed into pharynx and then into the oesophagus by the process called _________

    (a)

    deglutition

    (b)

    dentition

    (c)

    mastication

    (d)

    putrifaction

  57. The Oxygen Dissociation Curve is ______.

    (a)

    sigmoid

    (b)

    straight line

    (c)

    curved

    (d)

    rectangular hyperbola

  58. Every 100mL of deoxygenated blood delivers ______________ of carbon di oxide to the alveoli for elimination.

    (a)

    10mL

    (b)

    8mL

    (c)

    4mL

    (d)

    20mL

  59. The chemosensitive area found close to the rhythm centre is highly sensitive to

    (a)

    CO2 alone

    (b)

    H+ alone

    (c)

    O2

    (d)

    CO2 and H+

  60. Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by ____________

    (a)

    Carbon dioxide content in venous blood

    (b)

    Carbon dioxide content in arterial blood

    (c)

    Oxygen content in venous blood

    (d)

    Oxygen content in arterial blood

  61. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?

    (a)

    Globulin

    (b)

    Fibrinogen

    (c)

    Albumin

    (d)

    Serum amylase

  62. An unconscious patient is rushed into the emergency room and needs a fast blood transfusion. Because there is no time to check her medical history or determine her blood type, which type of blood should you as her doctor, give her?

    (a)

    A-

    (b)

    AB

    (c)

    O+

    (d)

    O-

  63. 60 - 65% of total WBC consists of___________________

    (a)

    Eosinophils

    (b)

    Granulocytes

    (c)

    Neutrophils

    (d)

    Basophils

  64. Plasma without fibrinogen is called _________

    (a)

    Plasma protein

    (b)

    Serum

    (c)

    Fibrin

    (d)

    atheroma

  65. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have

    (a)

    Less amino acids in his urine

    (b)

    Macula densa cells

    (c)

    Less urea in his urine

    (d)

    More sodium in his urine

  66. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed?

    (a)

    Micturition will continue

    (b)

    Urine will be continue to collect normally in the bladder

    (c)

    There will be micturition

    (d)

    Urine will not collection the bladder

  67. ___________part of nephron has evolved to form hypertonic urine.

    (a)

    Glomerulus

    (b)

    Loop of Henle

    (c)

    Proximal convoluted tubule

    (d)

    Collecting duct

  68. ________________is not a symptom of glomerulonephritis.

    (a)

    Hypertension

    (b)

    Haematuria

    (c)

    Proteinuria

    (d)

    Renal colic pain

  69. Muscles are derived from _____.

    (a)

    ectoderm

    (b)

    mesoderm

    (c)

    endoderm

    (d)

    neuro ectoderm

  70. Appendicular skeleton is ______.

    (a)

    girdles and their limbs

    (b)

    vertebrae

    (c)

    skull and vertebral column

    (d)

    ribs and sternum

  71. A human skeletal system has ___________bones.

    (a)

    203

    (b)

    206

    (c)

    205

    (d)

    210

  72. Choose the structure made of 8 bones

    (a)

    Cervical region of vertebral column

    (b)

    Tarsal

    (c)

    Cranium

    (d)

    Metacarpals

  73. Assertion(A): The imbalance in concentration of Na+, K+ and proteins generates action potential.
    Reason(R): To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+ and K+, the neurons use electrical energy.

    (a)

    Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

    (b)

    Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion.

    (c)

    Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

    (d)

    Both Assertion and Reason are false

  74. The respiratory centre is present in the _______.

    (a)

    Medulla oblongata

    (b)

    Hypothalamus

    (c)

    Cerebellum

    (d)

    Thalamus

  75. Corpora quadrigemina acts as reflex centre for __________

    (a)

    Conditional reflexes

    (b)

    Smelling

    (c)

    Vision

    (d)

    Taste

  76. The olfactory receptor cells are _________ shaped.

    (a)

    pin

    (b)

    flask

    (c)

    egg

    (d)

    pyramid

  77. Which of the following statement about sex hormones is correct?

    (a)

    Testosterone is produced by Leydig cells under the influence of luteinizing hormone.

    (b)

    Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum and softens pelvic ligaments during child birth.

    (c)

    Oestrogen is secreted by both Sertoli cells and corpus luteum

    (d)

    Progesterone produced by corpus luteum is biologically different from the one produced by placenta

  78. A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of ____.

    (a)

    Low secretion of growth hormone

    (b)

    Cancer of the thyroid gland

    (c)

    Over secretion of pars distalis

    (d)

    Deficiency of iodine in diet

  79. The disease _____________ is not related to malfunctioning of Thyroid gland

    (a)

    Gull's disease

    (b)

    Grave's disease

    (c)

    Cretinism

    (d)

    Tetany

  80. Match and identify the wrong pair

    Column I Column II
    1. Cushing's Syndrome Cortisol
    2. Addison's disease Adrenal cortex
    3. Acromegaly TSH
    4. Gigantism GH
    (a)

    1 and 3

    (b)

    2 only

    (c)

    1 and 4

    (d)

    3 only

  81. Match the following.

    1. Bombyx mori (i) Champa (I) Muga
    2. Antheraea assamensis (ii) Mulberry (II) Eri
    3. Antheraea mylitta (iii) Arjun (III) Tassar
    4. Attacus ricini (iv) Castor (IV) Mulberry

    Select the correct one.

    (a)

    1 – ii – IV

    (b)

    2 – iii – II

    (c)

    3 - i - I

    (d)

    4 - iv - III

  82. Assertion: The best quality of the pearl is known as Iingha pearl and obtained from marine oysters.
    Reason: Nacre is secreted continuously by the epithelial layer of the mantle and deposited around the foreign particle.

    (a)

    Assertion is true, Reason is false

    (b)

    Assertion and Reason are false

    (c)

    Assertion is false But Reason is true

    (d)

    Assertion and Reason are true

  83. Choose the correct statement.
    (i) The female lac insect is larger than male.
    (ii) The insect is a parasite.
    (iii) Immature harvesting produces 'Ari lac'.
    (iv) Lac is a good insulator.

    (a)

    i, ii, iii

    (b)

    all the above

    (c)

    ii and iv

    (d)

    i and iii

  84. Bombyx mori is divided into three races depending on _____________

    (a)

    silk produced

    (b)

    length of caterpillar

    (c)

    voltinism

    (d)

    cocoon formation

  85. In Gymnosperms, the activity of sieve cells are controlled by _____.

    (a)

    Nearby sieve tube members

    (b)

    Phloem parenchyma cells

    (c)

    Nucleus of companion cells

    (d)

    Nucleus of albuminous cells

  86. When a leaf trace extends from a vascular bundle in a dicot stem, what would be the arrangement of vascular tissues in the veins of the leaf?

    (a)

    Xylem would be on top and the phloem on the bottom

    (b)

    Phloem would be on top and the xylem on the bottom

    (c)

    Xylem would encircle the phloem

    (d)

    Phloem would encircle the xylem

  87. Usually, the monocotyledons do not increase their girth, because ____.

    (a)

    They possess actively dividing cambium

    (b)

    They do not possess actively dividing cambium

    (c)

    Ceases activity of cambium

    (d)

    All are correct

  88. The common bottle cork is a product of______.

    (a)

    Phellem

    (b)

    Phellogen

    (c)

    Xylem

    (d)

    Vascular cambium

  89. In a fully turgid cell _____.

    (a)

    DPD = 10 atm; OP = 5 atm; TP = 10 atm

    (b)

    DPD = 0 atm; OP = 10 atm; TP = 10 atm

    (c)

    DPD = 0 atm; OP = 5 atm; TP = 10 atm

    (d)

    DPD = 20 atm; OP = 20 atm; TP = 10 atm

  90. Which among the following is correct?
    i. Apoplast is fastest and operate in nonliving part. 
    ii. Transmembrane route includes vacuole.
    iii. Symplast interconnect the nearby cell through plasmadesmata.
    iv. Symplast and transmembrane route are in living part of the cell

    (a)

    i and ii

    (b)

    ii and iii

    (c)

    iii and iv

    (d)

    i, ii, iii, iv

  91. Identify correct match.

    1. Die back disease of citrus (i) Mo
    2. Whip tail disease (ii) Zn
    3. Brown heart of turnip (iii) Cu
    4. Little leaf (iv) B
    (a)

    1(iii) 2 (ii) 3 (iv) 4 (i)

    (b)

    1 (iii) 2 (i) 3 (iv) 4 (ii)

    (c)

    1 (i) 2 (iii) 3 (ii) 4 (iv)

    (d)

    1 (iii) 2 (iv) 3 (ii) 4 (i)

  92. Match the correct combination.

      Minerals   Role
    A Molybdenum 1 Chlorophyll
    B Zinc 2 Methionine
    C Magnesium 3 Auxin
    D Sulphur 4 Nitrogenase
    (a)
    A B C D
    1 3 4 2
    (b)
    A B C D
    2 1 3 4
    (c)
    A B C D
    4 3 1 2
    (d)
    A B C D
    4 2 1 3
  93. For every CO2 molecule entering the C3 cycle, the number of ATP & NADPH required ________.

    (a)

    2ATP + 2NADPH

    (b)

    2ATP + 3NADPH

    (c)

    3ATP + 2NADPH

    (d)

    3ATP + 3NADPH

  94. Identify true statement regarding light reaction of photosynthesis.

    (a)

    Splitting of water molecule is associate with PS I.

    (b)

    PS I and PS II involved in the formation of NADPH + H+

    (c)

    The reaction center of PS I is Chlorophyll a with absorption peak at 680 nm.

    (d)

    The reaction center of PS II is Chlorophyll a with absorption peak at 700 nm.

  95. During oxidation of two molecules of cytosolic NADH + H+, number of ATP molecules produced in plants are _____.

    (a)

    3

    (b)

    4

    (c)

    6

    (d)

    8

  96. The compound which links glycolysis and Krebs cycle is _______.

    (a)

    Succinic acid

    (b)

    Pyruvic acid

    (c)

    Acetyl CoA

    (d)

    Citric acid

  97. Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation takes place during the electron transport chain in mitochondria.
    Reason (R): Succinyl CoA is phosphorylated into succinic acid by substrate phosphorylation.

    (a)

    A and R is correct. R is correct explanation of A

    (b)

    A and R is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

    (c)

    A is correct but R is wrong

    (d)

    A and R is wrong.

  98. Select the wrong statement from the following:

    (a)

    Formative phase of the cells retain the capability of cell division.

    (b)

    In elongation phase development of central vacuole takes place.

    (c)

    In maturation phase thickening and differentiation takes place.

    (d)

    In maturation phase, the cells grow further.

  99. If the diameter of the pulley is 6 inches, length of pointer is 10 inches and distance travelled by pointer is 5 inches. Calculate the actual growth in length of plant.

    (a)

    3 inches

    (b)

    6 inches

    (c)

    12 inches

    (d)

    30 inches

  100. ________ is the powerful growth inhibitor

    (a)

    Ethanol

    (b)

    Cytokinins

    (c)

    ABA

    (d)

    Auxin

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