BOOK BACK ONE MARK TEST

11th Standard

    Reg.No. :
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Chemistry

K.RAJA M.Sc. M.Ed. M.Phil.,

 PGT IN CHEMISTRY. 

MODEL SCHOOL NANGAVALLI.

 SALEM -636501

Time : 01:00:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 223

    ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

    223 x 1 = 223
  1. 40 ml of methane is completely burnt using 80 ml of oxygen at room temperature The volume of gas left. after cooling to room temperature is

    (a)

    40 ml CO2 gas

    (b)

    40 ml CO2 gas and 80 ml H2O gas

    (c)

    60 ml CO2 gas and 60 ml H2O gas

    (d)

    120 ml CO2 gas

  2. An element X has the following isotopic Composition 200X = 90%, 199X = 8% and 202X = 2% The Weighted average atomic mass of the element X is closet to  

    (a)

    201 u

    (b)

    202 u

    (c)

    199 u

    (d)

    200 u

  3. Assertion: Two mole of glucose contains 12.044 x 1023 molecules of glucose
    Reason: Total number of entities present in one mole of any substance is equal to 6.02 x 1022

    (a)

    both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion

    (b)

    both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

    (c)

    an assertion is true but reason is false

    (d)

    both assertion and reason are false

  4. Carbon forms two oxides, namely carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. The equivalent mass of which element remains constant?

    (a)

    Carbon

    (b)

    Oxygen

    (c)

    Both carbon and oxygen

    (d)

    Neither carbon nor oxygen

  5. The equivalent mass of a trivalent metal element is 9 g eq-1 the molar mass of its anhydrous oxide is

    (a)

    102 g

    (b)

    27 g

    (c)

    270 g

    (d)

    78 g

  6. The number of water molecules in a drop of water weighing 0.018 g is

    (a)

    6.022 x 1026

    (b)

    6.022 x1023

    (c)

    6.022 x 1020

    (d)

    9.9 x 1022

  7. 1 g of an impure sample of magnesium carbonate (containing no thermally decomposable impurities) on complete thermal decomposition gave 0.44 g of carbon dioxide gas. The percentage of impurity in the sample is ______________

    (a)

    0%

    (b)

    4.4%

    (c)

    16%

    (d)

    8.4%

  8. When 6.3g of sodium bicarbonate is added to 30g of the acetic acid solution, the residual solution is found to weigh 33g. The number of moles of carbon dioxide released in the reaction is

    (a)

    3

    (b)

    0.75

    (c)

    0.075

    (d)

    0.3

  9. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at 273 K at 1 atm the moles of HCl (g), formed is equal to

    (a)

    2 moles of HCI (g)

    (b)

    0.5 moles of HCI (g)

    (c)

    1.5 moles of HCI (g)

    (d)

    1 moles of HCI (g)

  10. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions does not show oxidising behaviour?

    (a)

    Cu + 2H2 SO4 \(\longrightarrow \) CuSO4 +SO2 + 2H2O

    (b)

    C + 2H2 + SO4 \(\longrightarrow \) CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O

    (c)

    BaCl2 + H2SO4 \(\longrightarrow \) BaSO4 + 2HCl

    (d)

    None of the above

  11. Choose the disproportionation reaction among the following redox reactions.

    (a)

    3Mg(s) + N2(g) \(\longrightarrow \) Mg3N2(s)

    (b)

    P4(s) + 3NaOH + 3H2\(\longrightarrow \) PH 3(g) + 3NaH2 PO2(aq)

    (c)

    Cl2(g) + 2Kl(aq) \(\longrightarrow \) 2KCl(aq) + I2

    (d)

    Cr2O3(s) + 2A1(s) \(\longrightarrow \) Al2O3(s) + 2Cr(s)

  12. Which one of the following represents 180g of water?

    (a)

    5 Moles of water

    (b)

    90 moles of water

    (c)

    \(\frac { 6.022\times { 10 }^{ 23 } }{ 180 } \) molecules of water 

    (d)

    6.022 x 1024molecules of water

  13. 7.5 g of a gas occupies a volume of 5.6 litres at 0° C and 1 atm pressure. The gas is

    (a)

    NO

    (b)

    N2O

    (c)

    CO

    (d)

    CO2

  14. Total number of electrons present in 1.7 g of ammonia is

    (a)

    6.022 x 1023

    (b)

    \(\frac { 6.022\times { 10 }^{ 22 } }{ 1.7 } \quad \)

    (c)

    \(\frac { 6.022\times { 10 }^{ 24 } }{ 1.7 } \)

    (d)

    \(\frac { 6.022\times { 10 }^{ 23 } }{ 1.7 } \)

  15. The oxidation number of Cr in Cr2O72- __________ is

    (a)

    +6

    (b)

    -6

    (c)

    +7

    (d)

    -7

  16. Among the three metals, zinc, copper and silver, the electron releasing tendency decreases in the following order.

    (a)

    zinc >silver >copper

    (b)

    zinc >copper >silver

    (c)

    silver > copper >zinc

    (d)

    copper > silver > zinc

  17. Consider the following statements :
    (i) Oxidation number of He = zero
    (ii) Increase in oxidation number results in reduction.
    (iii) The substance undergoing the increase in oxidation number is reducing agent.
    Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct?

    (a)

    only (i)

    (b)

    (ii) and (iii)

    (c)

    (i) and (iii)

    (d)

    only (ii)

  18. Rusting of iron articles is an example of ___________ reaction

    (a)

    Combustion

    (b)

    decomposition

    (c)

    redox

    (d)

    hydrolysis

  19. Identify disproportionation reaction

    (a)

    CH4 + 2O2 \(\longrightarrow\) CO2+ 2H2O

    (b)

    CH4 + 4Cl2 \(\longrightarrow\) CCl4 + 4HCI

    (c)

    2F2+ 2OH \(\longrightarrow\) 2F-+ OF2+ H2O

    (d)

    2NO2 + 2OH- \(\longrightarrow\) NO-2 + NO-3 + H2O

  20. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true about the following decomposition reaction.
    2KClO3 \(\longrightarrow\) 2KCl + 3O2
    (i) Potassium is undergoing oxidation
    (ii) Chlorine is undergoing oxidation
    (iii) Oxygen is reduced
    (iv) None of the species are undergoing oxidation and reduction.

    (a)

    only (iv)

    (b)

    (i) and (iv)

    (c)

    (iv) and (iii)

    (d)

    All of these

  21. Identify the correct statement(s) with respect to the following reaction :
    Zn + 2HCl \(\longrightarrow\) ZnCl2 + H2
    (i) Zinc is acting as an oxidant
    (ii) Chlorine is acting as a reductant
    (iii) Hydrogen is not acting as an oxidant
    (iv) Zn is acting as a reductant

    (a)

    only (ii)

    (b)

    only (iv)

    (c)

    both (ii) and (iii)

    (d)

    both (ii) and (i)

  22. Match the list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    List-I List-II
    A Cr2O72- 1 +5
    B MnO4- 2 +6
    C VO3- 3 +3
    D FeF63+ 4 +7
    (a)
    A B C D
    3 1 4 2
    (b)
    A B C D
    4 3 2 1
    (c)
    A B C D
    2 4 1 3
    (d)
    A B C D
    3 2 1 4
  23. Match the items in column list-I with relevant items in list-II.

    List-I List-II
    A Ions having positive charge 1 anion
    B Ions having negative charge 2 -1
    C Oxidation number of fluorine in NaF 3 0
    D The sum of oxidation number of all atoms in a neutral molecule 4 cation
    (a)
    A B C D
    3 4 2 1
    (b)
    A B C D
    1 2 3 4
    (c)
    A B C D
    2 3 4 1
    (d)
    A B C D
    4 1 2 3
  24. The correct increasing order of the oxidation state of sulphur in the anions \({ SO }_{ 3 }^{ 2- },{ SO }_{ 3 }^{ 2- }{ , }{ { S }_{ 2 }{ O } }_{ 4 }^{ 2- },{ S }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 6 }^{ 2- }\)

    (a)

    \({ SO }_{ 3 }^{ 2- }<{ SO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }<{ { S }_{ 2 }{ O } }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }<{ S }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 6 }^{ 2- }\)

    (b)

    \({ SO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }<{ SO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }<{ S }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 6 }^{ 2- }<{ SO }_{ 3 }^{ 2- }\)

    (c)

    \({ { S }_{ 2 }{ O } }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }<{ SO }_{ 3 }^{ 2- }<{ S }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 6 }^{ 2- }<{ SO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\)

    (d)

    \({ S }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 6 }^{ 2- }<{ SO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }<{ SO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }<{ SO }_{ 3 }^{ 2- }\)

  25. The equivalent mass of ferrous oxalate is __________.

    (a)

    \(\frac { molar\ mass\ of\ ferrousoxalate }{ 1 } \)

    (b)

    \(\frac { molar\ mass\ of\ ferrousoxalate }{ 2 } \)

    (c)

    \(\frac { molar\ mass\ of\ ferrousoxalate }{ 3 } \)

    (d)

    None of these

  26. If Avogadro number were changed from 6.022 x 1023to 6.022 x 1020, this would change

    (a)

    the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation

    (b)

    the ratio of elements to each other in a compound

    (c)

    the definition of mass in units of grams

    (d)

    the mass of one mole of carbon

  27. Two 22.4 litre containers A and B contains 8 g of O2 and 8 g of SO2 respectively at 273 K and 1 atm pressure, then

    (a)

    Number of molecules inA and B are same

    (b)

    Number of molecules in B is more than that in A.

    (c)

    The ratio between the number of molecules in A= to number of molecules in B is 2:1

    (d)

    Number of molecules in B is three times greater than the number of molecules in A

  28. What is the mass of precipitate formed when 50 ml of 8.5 % solution of AgNO3 is mixed with 100 ml of 1.865 % potassium chloride solution?

    (a)

    3.59g

    (b)

    7g

    (c)

    14 g

    (d)

    28 g

  29. The mass of a gas that occupies a volume of 612.5 ml at room temperature and pressure (250 c and 1 atm pressure) is 1.1g. The molar mass of the gas is

    (a)

    66.25 g mol-1

    (b)

    44 g mol-1

    (c)

    24.5 g mol-1

    (d)

    662.5 g mol-1

  30. Which of the following contain same number of carbon atoms as in 6 g of carbon-12.

    (a)

    7.5 g ethane

    (b)

    8 g methane

    (c)

    both (a) and (b)

    (d)

    none of these

  31. Which of the following compound(s) has /have a percentage of carbon same as that in ethylene (C2H4)

    (a)

    propene

    (b)

    ethyne

    (c)

    benzene

    (d)

    ethane

  32. Which of the following is/are true with respect to carbon -12

    (a)

    relative atomic mass is 12 u

    (b)

    the oxidation number of carbon is +4 in all its compounds.

    (c)

    1 mole ofcarbon-12 contain 6.022 x 1022 carbon atoms.

    (d)

    All of these

  33. Which one of the following is used as a standard for atomic mass.

    (a)

    6C12

    (b)

    7C12

    (c)

    6C13

    (d)

    6C14

  34. Assertion (A): Among halogens fluorine is the best oxidant. Reason
    (R): Fluorine is the most electronegative atom.

    (a)

    Both A and R are true and R explains A

    (b)

    Both A and R are true but R does not explain A

    (c)

    A is true but R is false

    (d)

    Both A and R are false

  35. Maximum oxidation state is present in the central metal atom of which compound

    (a)

    CrO2Cl2

    (b)

    MnO2

    (c)

    [Fe(CN)6]3-

    (d)

    MnO

  36. Identify the correct statements with reference to the given reaction
    P4 + 3OH- + 3H2O \(\longrightarrow\) PH3 + 3H2PO2-
    (i) Phosphorous is undergoing reduction only
    (ii) Phosphorous is undergoing oxidation only
    (iii) Phosphorous is undergoing both oxidation and reduction.
    (iv) Hydrogen is undergoing neither oxidation nor reduction.

    (a)

    only (iii)

    (b)

    both (iii) and (iv)

    (c)

    only (i)

    (d)

    None of these

  37. Assertion (A): In the reaction between potassium permanganate and potassium iodide, permanganate ions act as oxidising agent.
    Reason (R): Oxidation state of manganese changes from +2 to +7 during the reaction.

    (a)

    Both A and R are true and R explains A

    (b)

    Both A and R are true but R does not explain A

    (c)

    A is true but R is false

    (d)

    Both A and R are false

  38. The change in the oxidation number of S in H2S and SO2,in the following industrial reaction:
    2H2S(g) + SO2(g) \(\longrightarrow\) 3S(s) + H2O(g)

    (a)

    -2 to 0, +4 to 0

    (b)

    -2 to 0, +4 to -1

    (c)

    -2 to -1, +4 to 0

    (d)

    -2 to -1, +4 to -2

  39. In which of the following reactions, hydrogen peroxide acts as an oxidising agent?

    (a)

    I2+ H2O2 + 20H- \(\longrightarrow\) 21- + 2H2O + O2

    (b)

    PbS + 4H2O2 \(\longrightarrow\) PbSO4 + 4H2O

    (c)

    2MnO4-+ 3H2O2 \(\longrightarrow\) 2MnO2 + 3O2 + 2H2O + 2OH-

    (d)

    HOCI + H2O2 \(\longrightarrow\) H2O+ + Cl- + O2

  40. Identify the redox reaction taking place in a beaker.

    (a)

    Zn(s)+ Cu2+(aq) \(\longrightarrow\) Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)

    (b)

    Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) \(\longrightarrow\) Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)

    (c)

    Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq) \(\longrightarrow\) Zn(s) + cu2+ (aq)

    (d)

    2Ag(s) + cu2+(aq) \(\longrightarrow\) 2Ag+aq + Cu(s)

  41. The equivalent mass of potassium permanganate in alkaline medium is:
    MnO4- + 2H2O + 3e-\(\rightarrow\) MnO2 + 4OH-

    (a)

    31.6

    (b)

    52.7

    (c)

    79

    (d)

    None of these

  42. The energy of light of wavelength 45 nm is

    (a)

    6.67 x 1015J

    (b)

    6.67 x 1011J

    (c)

    4.42 x 10-18J

    (d)

    4.42 x 10-15J

  43. The energies E1and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths ie \(\lambda \)1 and\(\lambda \)2 will be

    (a)

    \(\frac { { \lambda }_{ 1 } }{ { \lambda }_{ 2 } } =1\)

    (b)

    \({ \lambda }_{ 1 }=2{ \lambda }_{ 2 }\)

    (c)

    \({ \lambda }_{ 1 }=\sqrt { 25\times 50{ \lambda }_{ 2 } } \)

    (d)

    \(2{ \lambda }_{ 1 }={ \lambda }_{ 2 }\)

  44. Splitting of spectral lines in an electric field is called

    (a)

    Zeeman effect

    (b)

    Shielding effect

    (c)

    Compton effect

    (d)

    Stark effect

  45. According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the least energetic photon?

    (a)

    n = 6 to n = 1

    (b)

    n = S to n = 4

    (c)

    n = S to n = 3

    (d)

    n = 6 to n = S

  46. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes ?

    (a)

    dz2, dxz

    (b)

    dxz, dyZ

    (c)

     dz2, dx2-y2

    (d)

    dxy ,dx2-y2

  47. The electronic configuration of Eu (Atomic no. 63) Gd (Atomic no. 64) and Tb (Atomic no. 65) are

    (a)

    [Xe] 4f6 5d' 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 Sd1 6s2 and [Xe] 4f8  5d1 6s2

    (b)

    [Xe] 4f7 , 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe] 4f9 6s2

    (c)

    [Xe] 4f7 ,6s2, [Xe] 4f7 6s2 and [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2

    (d)

    [Xe] 4fSd1 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe] 4f9 6s2

  48. Based on equation E = \(-2.178\times { 10 }^{ -18 }J\left( \frac { { Z }^{ 2 } }{ { n }^{ 2 } } \right) \)certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not correct?

    (a)

    Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit

    (b)

    For n = I, the electron has a more negative energy than it does for n = 6 which means that the electron is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit

    (c)

    The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of electron bound to the nucleus is lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus.

    (d)

    Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius.

  49. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes ?

    (a)

    dz2, dxz

    (b)

    dxz, dyZ

    (c)

     dz2, dx2-y2

    (d)

    dxy ,dx2-y2

  50. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by

    (a)

    azimuthal quantum number

    (b)

    spin quantum number

    (c)

    magnetic quantum number

    (d)

     orbital quantum number

  51. The maximum number of electrons in a sub shell is given by the expression

    (a)

     2n2

    (b)

    21+ I

    (c)

    41+ 2 

    (d)

    none of these

  52. For d-electron, the orbital angular momentum is

    (a)

    \(\frac { \sqrt { 2 } h }{ 2\pi } \)

    (b)

    \(\\ \frac { \sqrt { 2h } }{ 2\pi } \)

    (c)

    \(\frac { \sqrt { 2\times 4 } h }{ 2\pi } \)

    (d)

    \(\frac { \sqrt { 2\times 4 } h }{ 2\pi } \)

  53. What is the maximum numbers of electrons that can be associated with the following set of quantum numbers? n = 3, I = 1 and m =-1

    (a)

    4

    (b)

    6

    (c)

    2

    (d)

    = 10

  54. The total number of orbitals associated with the principal quantum number n = 3 is

    (a)

    9

    (b)

    8

    (c)

    5

    (d)

    7

  55. If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of electrons will be,

    (a)

    ns \(\rightarrow\) (n-2)f \(\rightarrow\) (n-l)d \(\rightarrow\) np

    (b)

    ns \(\rightarrow\) (n - I) d \(\rightarrow\) (n - 2) f \(\rightarrow\) np

    (c)

    ns \(\rightarrow\) (n-2)f \(\rightarrow\)np \(\rightarrow\) (n-l)d

    (d)

    none of these are correct

  56. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers:

      n 1 m s
    (i) 3 0 0 +\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
    (ii) 2 2 1 -\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
    (iii) 4 3 -2 +\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
    (iv) 1 0 -1 +\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
    (v) 3 4 3 -\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

    Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible?

    (a)

    (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

    (b)

    (ii), (iv) and (v)

    (c)

    (i) and (iii) .

    (d)

    (ii), (iii) and (iv)

  57. How many electrons in an atom with atomic number 105 can have (n + I) = 8 ? 

    (a)

    30

    (b)

    17

    (c)

    15

    (d)

    unpredictable

  58. Electron density in the yz plane of 3dxy-y2 orbital is

    (a)

    zero

    (b)

     0.50

    (c)

    0.75

    (d)

     0.90

  59. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then minimum uncertainty in velocity is

    (a)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ m } \sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } } \)

    (b)

    \( \sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } } \)

    (c)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ 2m } \sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } } \)

    (d)

    \( { \frac { h }{4\pi } } \)

  60. A macroscopic particle of mass 100 g and moving at a velocity of 100 cm S-1 will have a de Broglie wavelength of

    (a)

    6.6 x 10-29 em

    (b)

    6.6 x 10-30 em

    (c)

     6.6 x 10-31 em

    (d)

    6.6 x 10-32 em

  61. The ratio of de Broglie wavelengths of a deuterium atom to that of an u - particle, when the velocity of the former is five times greater than that of later, is

    (a)

     4

    (b)

    0.2

    (c)

    2.5

    (d)

    0.4

  62. The energy of an electron in the 3rd orbit of hydrogen atom is -E. The energy of an electron in the first orbit will be

    (a)

    -3E

    (b)

    \(\frac{-E}{3}\)

    (c)

    \(\frac{-E}{9}\)

    (d)

    -9E

  63. Time independent Schnodinger wave equation is

    (a)

    \(\overset { \wedge }{ H } \psi =E\psi \)

    (b)

    \({ \triangledown }^{ 2 }\psi +\frac { 8{ \pi }^{ 2 }m }{ { h }^{ 2 } } (E+V)\psi =0\)

    (c)

    \(\frac { { \partial }^{ 2 }\psi }{ { \partial x }^{ 2 } } +\frac { { \partial }^{ 2 }\psi }{ { \partial y }^{ 2 } } +\frac { { \partial }^{ 2 }\psi }{ { \partial z }^{ 2 } } +\frac { { 2m } }{ { h }^{ 2 } } (E-V)\Psi =0\)

    (d)

    All of these

  64. Which of the following does not represent the mathematical expression for the Heisenberg uncertainty principle?

    (a)

    \(\triangle x.\triangle p\ge \frac { h }{ 4\pi } \)

    (b)

    \(\triangle x.\triangle v\ge \frac { h }{ 4\pi m } \)

    (c)

    \(\triangle E.\triangle t\ge \frac { h }{ 4\pi } \)

    (d)

    \(\triangle E.\triangle x\ge \frac { h }{ 4\pi } \)

  65. Electronic configuratton of species M2+ is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 and its atomic weight is 56. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of species M is

    (a)

    26

    (b)

    22

    (c)

    30

    (d)

    24

  66. Assertion: The spectrum of Heis expected to be similar to that of hydrogen
    Reason: He is also one electron system.

    (a)

    If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of correct explanation of assertion.

    (b)

    If both assertion and reason are reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

    (c)

    If assertion is true but reason is false

    (d)

    If both assertion and reason are false

  67. Assertion: Number of radial and angular nodes for 3p orbital are 1, 1 respectively.
    Reason: Number of radial and angular nodes depends only on principal quantum number.

    (a)

    both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

    (b)

    both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

    (c)

    assertion is true but reason is false

    (d)

    both assertion and reason are false

  68. Electronic configuration of species M2+ is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 and its atomic weight is 56. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of species M is:

    (a)

    26

    (b)

    22

    (c)

    30

    (d)

    24

  69. What would be the IUPAC name for an element with atomic number 222?

    (a)

    bibibiium

    (b)

    bididium

    (c)

    didibium

    (d)

    bibibium

  70. The electronic configuration of the elements A and Bare 1s2, 2s 2,2p6,3s2 and 1s2, 2s2,2p5 respectively. The formula of the ionic compound that can be formed between these elements is

    (a)

    AB

    (b)

    AB2

    (c)

    A2B

    (d)

    none of the above

  71. The group of elements in which the differentiating electron enters the anti penultimate shell of atoms are called

    (a)

    p-block elements

    (b)

    d-block elements

    (c)

    s-block elements

    (d)

    f-block elements

  72. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

    (a)

    I< Br < CI < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)

    (b)

    Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)

    (c)

    Al3+< Mg2+ < Na+ - (increasing ionic size)

    (d)

    B < C < O < N (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)

  73. Which of the following elements will have the highest electro negativity

    (a)

    Chlorine

    (b)

    Nitrogen

    (c)

    Cesium

    (d)

    Fluorine

  74. Various successive ionisation enthalpies (in kJ mol-1) of an element are given below.

    IE1 IE2 IE3 IE4 IE5
    577.5 1,810 2,750 11,580 14,820

    The element is

    (a)

    phosphorus

    (b)

    Sodium

    (c)

    Aluminium

    (d)

    Silicon

  75. In the third period the first ionization potential is of the order

    (a)

    Na > Al > Mg > Si > P

    (b)

    Na< AI < Mg < Si < P

    (c)

    Mg > Na > Si > P > Al

    (d)

    Na < AI < Mg < Si < P

  76. Identify the wrong statement.

    (a)

    Amongst the isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on cation, smaller is the ionic radius

    (b)

    Amongst isoelectric species greater the negative charge  on the anion, larger is the ionic radius

    (c)

    Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table

    (d)

    Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period of the periodic table

  77. Which one of the following arrangements represent the correct order of least negative to most negative electron gain enthalpy

    (a)

    Al < O < C < Ca < F

    (b)

    Al < Ca < O < C

    (c)

    C < F < O < Al < Ca

    (d)

    Ca < Al < C < O < F

  78. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy with negative sign of F, CI, Br and I having atomic number 9,17,35 and 53 respectively

    (a)

    I > Br > CI > F

    (b)

    F > CI > Br > I

    (c)

    CI > F > Br > I

    (d)

    Br > I> CI > F

  79. Which one of the following is the least electronegative element?

    (a)

    Bromine

    (b)

    Chlorine

    (c)

    Iodine

    (d)

    Hydrogen

  80. The element with positive electron gain enthalpy is

    (a)

    Hydrogen

    (b)

    Sodium

    (c)

    Argon

    (d)

    Fluorine

  81. The correct order of decreasing electronegativity values among the elements X, Y, Z and A with atomic numbers 4, 8,7 and 12 respectively

    (a)

    Y > Z > X > A

    (b)

    Z > A >Y > X

    (c)

    X > Y > Z > A

    (d)

    X > Y > A > Z

  82. The electronic configuration of the atom having maximum difference in first and second ionisation energies is

    (a)

    1s2, 2s2, 2p6 3s1

    (b)

    1s2, 2s2,2p6, 3s2

    (c)

    1s2, 2s2,2p6, 3s2, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1

    (d)

    Is2, 2s2,2p6, 3s2, 3p1

  83. Which of the following is second most electronegative element?

    (a)

    Chlorine

    (b)

    Fluorine

    (c)

    Oxygen

    (d)

    Sulphur

  84. lE1 and IE2 of Mg are 179 and 348 kcal mol-1 respectively. The energy required for the reaction Mg ⟶Mg2++2e- is

    (a)

    +169 kcal mol-1

    (b)

    -169 kcal mol-1

    (c)

    + 527 kcal mol-1

    (d)

    -527 kcal mol-1

  85. In a given shell the order of screening effect is

    (a)

    s > p > d > f

    (b)

    s > p > f > d

    (c)

    f > d > p > s

    (d)

    f > p > s > d

  86. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correct

    (a)

    H- > H+ > H

    (b)

    Na+ > F- > O2-

    (c)

    F > O2- > Na+

    (d)

    None of these

  87. The First ionisation potential of Na, Mg and Si are 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol-1 respectively. The ionisation potential of Al will be closer to

    (a)

    760 kJ mol-1

    (b)

    575 kJ mol-1

    (c)

    801 kJ mol-1

    (d)

    419 kJ mol-1

  88. Which one of the following is true about metallic character when we move from left to right in a period and top to bottom in a group?

    (a)

    Decreases in a period and increases along the group

    (b)

    Increases in a period and decreases in a group

    (c)

    Increases both in the period and the group

    (d)

    Decreases both in the period and in the group

  89. How does electron affinity change when we move from left to right in a period in the periodic table?

    (a)

    Generally increases

    (b)

    Generally decreases

    (c)

    Remains unchanged

    (d)

    First increases and then decreases

  90. Which of the following pairs of elements exhibit diagonal relationship?

    (a)

    Be and Mg

    (b)

    Li and Mg

    (c)

    Be and B

    (d)

    Be and Al

  91. Assertion: Helium has the highest value of ionisation energy among all the elements known
    Reason: Helium has the highest value of electron affinity among all the elements known

    (a)

    Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation for the assertion

    (b)

    Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion

    (c)

    Assertion is true and the reason is false

    (d)

    Both assertion and the reason are false

  92. Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect?

    (a)

    Hydrogen ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution.

    (b)

    Dihydrogen acts as a reducing agent.

    (c)

    Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common.

    (d)

    Hydrogen never acts. as cation in ionic salts

  93. Water gas is

    (a)

    H2O(g)

    (b)

    CO + H2O

    (c)

    CO + H2

    (d)

    CO + N2

  94. Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regard to ortho and para dihydrogen ?

    (a)

    They are nuclear spin isomers

    (b)

    Ortho isomer has zero nuclear spin whereas the para isomer has one nuclear spin

    (c)

    The para isomer is favoured at low temperatures

    (d)

    The thermal conductivity of the para isomer is 50% greater than that of the ortho isomer

  95. Ionic hydrides are formed by

    (a)

    halogens

    (b)

    chalogens

    (c)

    inert gases

    (d)

    group one elements

  96. Tritium nucleus contains

    (a)

    1 p+0 n

    (b)

    2 p+1 n

    (c)

    1 p + 2 n

    (d)

    none of these

  97. Non-stoichiometric hydrides are formed by

    (a)

    palladium, vanadium

    (b)

    carbon, nickel

    (c)

    manganese, lithium

    (d)

    nitrogen, chlorine

  98. If a body of a fish contains 1.2 g hydrogen in its total body mass, if all the hydrogen is replaced with deuterium then the increase in body weight of the fish will be

    (a)

    1.2 g

    (b)

    2.4 g

    (c)

    3.6 g

    (d)

    \(\sqrt{4.8}\)g

  99. The hardness of water can be determined by volumetrically using the reagent

    (a)

    sodium thio sulphate

    (b)

    potassium permanganate

    (c)

    hydrogen peroxide

    (d)

    EDTA

  100. The cause of permanent hardness of water is due to

    (a)

    Ca(HCO3)2

    (b)

    Mg(HCO3)2

    (c)

    CaCl2

    (d)

    MgCO3

  101. Zeolite used to soften hardness of water is hydrated

    (a)

    Sodium aluminium silicate

    (b)

    Calcium aluminium silicate

    (c)

    Zinc aluminium borate

    (d)

    Lithium aluminium hydride

  102. A commercial sample of hydrogen peroxide marked as 100 volume H2O2, it means that

    (a)

    1 ml of H2O2 will give 100 ml O2 at STP

    (b)

    1 L of H2O2 will give 100 ml O2 at STP

    (c)

    1 L of H2O2 will give 22.4 L O2

    (d)

    1 ml of H2O2  will give 1 mole of O2 at STP

  103. When hydrogen peroxide is shaken with an acidified solution of potassium dichromate in presence of ether, the ethereal layer turns blue due to the formation of

    (a)

    Cr2O3

    (b)

    \({ CrO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\)

    (c)

    CrO(O2)2

    (d)

    none of these

  104. For decolorisation of 1 mole of acidified KMnO4, the moles of H2O2 required is

    (a)

    \(\frac{1}{2}\)

    (b)

    \(\frac{3}{2}\)

    (c)

    \(\frac{5}{2}\)

    (d)

    \(\frac{7}{2}\)

  105. Volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 is

    (a)

    1.5

    (b)

    4.5

    (c)

    16.8

    (d)

    8.4

  106. The hybridisation of oxygen atom is H2O and H2O2 are, respectively

    (a)

    sp and Sp3

    (b)

    sp and sp

    (c)

    Sp and Sp2

    (d)

    Sp3and Sp3

  107. The reaction H3PO2 + D2O ➝ H2DPO2 + HDO indicates that hypo-phosphorus acid is

    (a)

    tribasic acid

    (b)

    dibasic acid

    (c)

    mono basic acid

    (d)

    none of these

  108. In solid ice, oxygen atom is surrounded

    (a)

    tetrahedrally by 4 hydrogen atoms

    (b)

    octahedrally by 2 oxygen and 4 hydrogen atoms

    (c)

    tetrahedrally by 2 hydrogen and 2 oxygen atoms

    (d)

    octahedrally by 6 hydrogen atoms

  109. The type of H-bonding present in ortho nitro phenol and p-nitro phenol are respectively

    (a)

    inter molecular H-bonding and intra molecular H-bonding

    (b)

    intra molecular H-bonding and inter molecular H-bonding

    (c)

    intra molecular H - bonding and no H - bonding

    (d)

    intra molecular H - bonding and intra molecular H - bonding

  110. Heavy water is used as

    (a)

    moderator in nuclear reactions

    (b)

    coolant in nuclear reactions

    (c)

    both (a) and (b)

    (d)

    none of these

  111. Water is a

    (a)

    basic oxide

    (b)

    acidic oxide

    (c)

    amphoteric oxide

    (d)

    none of these

  112. Assertion: Permanent hardness of water is removed by treatment with washing soda.
    Reason: Washing soda reacts with soluble calcium and magnesium chlorides and sulphates in hard water to form insoluble carbonates

    (a)

    Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

    (b)

    Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

    (c)

    Assertion is true but reason is false

    (d)

    Both assertion and reason are false

  113. Statement-I: Hydrogen is placed at the top of the group which is in-line with the latest periodic table.
    Statement-II: Hydrogen has a tendency to lose its electron to form H+, thus showing electropositive character like alkali metals. On the other hand, hydrogen has a tendency to gain an electron to yield H-, thus showing electronegative character like halogens.

    (a)

    Statements-I and II are correct and Statement-Il is the correct explanation of statement-I.

    (b)

    Statements-land II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of statement- I.

    (c)

    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is wrong.

    (d)

    Statement-I is wrong but Statement-II is correct.

  114. Statement-I: The magnetic moment of parahydrogen is zero.
    Statement-II: The spins of two hydrogen atoms in para H2 molecule neutralise each other.

    (a)

    Statements-I and II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of statement-I.

    (b)

    Statements-I and II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of statement- I.

    (c)

    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is wrong.

    (d)

    Statement-I is wrong but Statement-II is correct.

  115. Statement-I: Heavy water has been widely used as moderator in nuclear reactors.
    Statement-II: Heavy water can lower the energies of fast moving neutrons.

    (a)

    Statements-I and II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of statement-I.

    (b)

    Statements-land II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of statement-I.

    (c)

    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is wrong.

    (d)

    Statement-I is wrong but Statement-II is correct.

  116. For alkali metals, which one of the following trends is incorrect?

    (a)

    Hydration energy: Li > Na > K > Rb

    (b)

    Ionisation energy: Li > Na > K > Rb

    (c)

    Density: Li < Na < K < Rb

    (d)

    Atomic size: Li < Na < K < Rb

  117. Which of the following statements is in correct?

    (a)

    Li+ has minimum degree of hydration among alkali metal cations

    (b)

    The oxidation state of K in KO2 is +1

    (c)

    Sodium is used to make Na / Pb alloy

    (d)

    MgSO4 is readily soluble in water

  118. Which of the following compounds will not evolve H2 gas on reaction with alkali metals?

    (a)

    ethanoic acid

    (b)

    ethanol

    (c)

    phenol

    (d)

    none of these

  119. Which of the following has the highest tendency to give the reaction \(M_{g}^{+}\xrightarrow[Medium]{Aqueous}M_{aq}^{+}\)

    (a)

    Na

    (b)

    Li

    (c)

    Rb

    (d)

    K

  120. sodium is stored in

    (a)

    alcohol

    (b)

    water

    (c)

    kerosene

    (d)

    none of these

  121. RbO2 is

    (a)

    superoxide and paramagnetic

    (b)

    peroxide and diamagnetic

    (c)

    superoxide and diamagnetic

    (d)

    peroxide and paramagnetic

  122. Find the wrong statement

    (a)

    sodium metal is used in organic qualitative analysis

    (b)

    sodium carbonate is soluble in water and it is used in inorganic qualitative analysis

    (c)

    potassium carbonate can be prepared by solvay process

    (d)

    potassium bicarbonate is acidic salt

  123. Lithium shows diagonal relationship with

    (a)

    sodium

    (b)

    magnesium

    (c)

    calcium

    (d)

    aluminium

  124. In case of alkali metal halides, the ionic character increases in the order

    (a)

    MF < MCI < MBr < MI

    (b)

    MI < MBr < MCI < MF

    (c)

    MI < MBr<MF < MCI

    (d)

    none of these

  125. In which process, fused sodium hydroxide is electro lysed for extraction of sodium

    (a)

    Castner's process

    (b)

    Cyanide process

    (c)

    Down process

    (d)

    All of these

  126. The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is

    (a)

    Ca(CN)3

    (b)

    CaN2

    (c)

    CaCN2

    (d)

    Ca3N2

  127. Which of the following has highest hydration energy

    (a)

    MgCl2

    (b)

    CaCl2

    (c)

    BaCl2

    (d)

    SrCI2

  128. Match the flame colours of the alkali and alkaline earth metal salts in the bunsen burner

    (P) Sodium (1) Brick red
    (q) Calcium (2) Yellow
    (r) Barium (3) Violet
    (s) Strontium (4) Apple green
    (t) Cesium (5) Crimsonred
    (u) Potassium (6) Blue
    (a)

    p-2, q-1, r-4, s-5, t-6, u-3

    (b)

    p-1, q-2, r-4, s-5, t-6, u-3

    (c)

    p-4, q-1, r-2, s-3, t-5, u-6

    (d)

    p-6, q-1, r-2, s-3, t-5, u-4

  129. Assertion Generally alkali and alkaline earth metals form superoxides
    Reason There is a single bond between O and 0 in superoxides

    (a)

    both assertion and reason are true and reason the correct explanation of assertion

    (b)

    both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

    (c)

    assertion is true but reason is false

    (d)

    both assertion and reason are false

  130. Assertion : BeSO4 is soluble in water while BaSO4 is not
    Reason : Hydration energy decreases down the group from Be to Ba and lattice energy remains almost constant.

    (a)

    both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

    (b)

    both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

    (c)

    assertion is true but reason is false

    (d)

    both assertion and reason are false.

  131. Which is the correct sequence of solubility of  carbonates of alkaline earth metals?

    (a)

    BaCO3 > SrCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3

    (b)

    MgCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3

    (c)

    CaCO3 > BaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3

    (d)

    BaCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3 > MaCO3

  132. In context with beryllium, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

    (a)

    It is rendered passive by nitric acid

    (b)

    It forms Be2C

    (c)

    Its salts are rarely hydrolysed

    (d)

    Its hydride is electron deficient and polymeric

  133. The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as

    (a)

    lime water

    (b)

    quick lime

    (c)

    milk of lime

    (d)

    aqueous solution of slaked lime

  134. A colourless solid substance (A) on heating evolved CO2 and also gave a white residue, soluble in water. Residue also gave CO2 when treated with dilute HCI

    (a)

    Na2CO3

    (b)

    NaHCO3

    (c)

    CaCO3

    (d)

    Ca(HCO3)2

  135. The compound (X) on heating gives a colourless gas and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain (B). Excess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of B, C is formed. Solid (C) on heating gives back X. (B) is

    (a)

    CaCO3

    (b)

    Ca(OH)2

    (c)

    Na2CO3

    (d)

    NaHCO3

  136. Which of the following statement is false?

    (a)

    Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart

    (b)

    Mg2+ ions are important in the green parts of the plants

    (c)

    Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP

    (d)

    Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting

  137. The name 'Blue John' is given to which of the following compounds?

    (a)

    CaH2

    (b)

    CaF2

    (c)

    Ca2(PO4)2

    (d)

    CaO

  138. Formula of Gypsum is

    (a)

    CaSO4.2H2O

    (b)

    CaSO4·1/2 H2O.

    (c)

    3CaSO4.H2O

    (d)

    2CaSO4.2H2O

  139. When CaC2 is heated in atmospheric nitrogen in an electric furnace the compound formed is

    (a)

    Ca(CN)2

    (b)

    CaNCN

    (c)

    CaC2N2

    (d)

    CaNC2

  140. Among the following the least thermally stable is

    (a)

    K2CO3

    (b)

    Na2CO3

    (c)

    BaCO3

    (d)

    Li2CO3

  141. Gases deviate from ideal behavior at high pressure. Which of the following statement(s) is correct for non-ideality?

    (a)

    at high pressure the collision between the gas molecule become enormous

    (b)

    at high pressure the gas molecules move only in one direction

    (c)

    at high pressure, the volume of gas become insignificant

    (d)

    at high pressure the intermolecular interactions become significant

  142. Rate of diffusion of a gas is

    (a)

    directly proportional to its density

    (b)

    directly proportional to its molecular weight

    (c)

    directly proportional to its square root of its molecular weight

    (d)

    inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight

  143. Which of the following is the correct expression for the equation of state of van der Waals gas?

    (a)

    \(\left( P+\frac { a }{ { n }^{ 2 }{ V }^{ 2 } } \right) (V-nb)=nRT\)

    (b)

    \(\left( P+\frac { na }{ { n }^{ 2 }{ V }^{ 2 } } \right) (V-nb)=nRT\)

    (c)

    \(\left( P+\frac { { an }^{ 2 } }{ { V }^{ 2 } } \right) (V-nb)=nRT\)

    (d)

    \(\left( \frac { P+{ n }^{ 2 }{ a }^{ 2 } }{ { V }^{ 2 } } \right) (V-ab)=nRT\)

  144. When an ideal gas undergoes unrestrained expansion, no cooling occurs because the molecules

    (a)

    are above inversion temperature

    (b)

    exert no attractive forces on each other

    (c)

    do work equal to the loss in kinetic energy

    (d)

    collide without loss of energy

  145. Equal weights of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at 298 K. The fraction of total pressure exerted by oxygen is

    (a)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \)

    (b)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

    (c)

    \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } \)

    (d)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \times 273\times 298\)

  146. The temperatures at which real gases obey the ideal gas laws over a wide range of pressure is called

    (a)

    Critical temperature

    (b)

    Boyle temperature

    (c)

    Inversion temperature

    (d)

    Reduced temperature

  147. A bottle of ammonia and a bottle of HCI connected through a long tube are opened simultaneously at both ends. The white ammonium chloride ring first formed will be

    (a)

    At the center of the tube

    (b)

    Near the hydrogen chloride bottle

    (c)

    Near the ammonia bottle

    (d)

    Throughout the length of the tube

  148. The value of universal gas constant depends upon

    (a)

    Temperature of the gas

    (b)

    Volume of the gas

    (c)

    Number of moles of the gas

    (d)

    units of Pressure and volume.

  149. The value of the gas constant R is

    (a)

    0.082 dm2 atm.

    (b)

    0.987 cal mol-1K-1

    (c)

    8.3 J mol-1 K-1

    (d)

    8 erg mol-1 K-1

  150. Use of hot air balloon in sports at meteorological observation is an application of

    (a)

    Boyle's law

    (b)

    Newton's law

    (c)

    Kelvin's law

    (d)

    Brown's law

  151. The table indicates the value of van der Waals constant 'a' in (dm3)2 atm. mol-2.

    Gas O2 N2 NH3 CH4
    a 1.360 1.390 4.170 2.253

    The gas which can be most easily liquefied is

    (a)

    O2

    (b)

    N2

    (c)

    NH3

    (d)

    CH4

  152. Consider the following statements
    i) Atmospheric pressure is less at the top of a mountain than at sea level
    ii) Gases are much more compressible than solids or liquids
    iii) When the atmospheric pressure increases the height of the mercury column rises.
    Select the correct statement

    (a)

    I and II

    (b)

    II and III

    (c)

    I and III

    (d)

    I, II and III

  153. Compressibility factor for CO2 at 400 K and 71.0 bar is 0.8697. The molar volume of CO2 under these conditions is

    (a)

    22.04 dm3

    (b)

    2.24 dm3

    (c)

    0.41 dm3

    (d)

    19.5 dm3

  154. If temperature and volume of an ideal gas is increased to twice its values, the initial pressure P becomes

    (a)

    4P

    (b)

    2P

    (c)

    P

    (d)

    3P

  155. At identical temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of hydrogen gas is 3\(\sqrt { 3 } \) times that of a hydrocarbon having molecular formula CnH2n-2. What is the value of n ?

    (a)

    8

    (b)

    4

    (c)

    3

    (d)

    1

  156. Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container, with a pin-hole through which both can escape what fraction of oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape.

    (a)

    \(\frac { 3 }{ 8 } \)

    (b)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

    (c)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 } \)

    (d)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \)

  157. The variation of volume V, with temperature T, keeping pressure constant is called the coefficient of thermal expansion ie \(\alpha =\frac { 1 }{ V } { \left( \frac { \partial V }{ \partial T } \right) }_{ P }\) . For an ideal gas a is equal to

    (a)

    T

    (b)

    1/T

    (c)

    P

    (d)

    none of these

  158. Four gases P, Q, R and S have almost same values of 'b' but their 'a' values (a, b are Vander Waals Constants) are in the order Q < R < S < P. At a particular temperature, among the four gases the most easily liquefiable one is

    (a)

    P

    (b)

    Q

    (c)

    R

    (d)

    S

  159. Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from

    (a)

    CH4(g)

    (b)

    NH3 (g)

    (c)

    H(g)

    (d)

    N2 (g)

  160. The units of Vander Waals constants 'b' and 'a' respectively

    (a)

    mol L-1 and L atm2 mol-1

    (b)

    mol L and L atm mol2

    (c)

    mol-1L and L2 atm mol-2

    (d)

    none of these

  161. Assertion: Critical temperature of CO2 is 304K, it can be liquefied above 304K.
    Reason : For a given mass of gas, volume is to directly proportional to pressure at constant temperature

    (a)

    both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

    (b)

    both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

    (c)

    assertion is true but reason is false

    (d)

    both assertion and reason are false

  162. What is the density of N2 gas at 227o C and 5.00 atm pressure? (R=0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1 )

    (a)

    1.40 g/L

    (b)

    2.81 g/L

    (c)

    3.41 g/L

    (d)

    0.29 g/L

  163. Which of the following diagrams correctly describes the behaviour of a fixed mass of an ideal gas? (T is measured in K)

    (a)

    (b)

    (c)

    (d)

    All of these

  164. 25g of each of the following gases are taken at 27°C and 600 mm Hg pressure. Which of these will have the least volume?

    (a)

    HBr

    (b)

    HCI

    (c)

    HF

    (d)

    HI

  165. The amount of heat exchanged with surrounding at constant temperature pressure is given by the quantity

    (a)

    ΔE

    (b)

    ΔH

    (c)

    ΔS

    (d)

    ΔG

  166. All the naturally occurring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to

    (a)

    decrease in entropy

    (b)

    increase in enthalpy

    (c)

    increase in free energy

    (d)

    decrease in free energy

  167. In an adiabatic process, which of the following is true?

    (a)

    q = w

    (b)

    q = 0

    (c)

    ΔE = q

    (d)

    PΔV= 0

  168. In a reversible process, the change in entropy of the universe is

    (a)

    > 0

    (b)

    > 0

    (c)

    < 0

    (d)

    = 0

  169. In an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas

    (a)

    w=-ΔU

    (b)

    w=ΔU+ΔH

    (c)

    ΔU=O

    (d)

    w = 0

  170. The intensive property among the quantities below is

    (a)

    mass

    (b)

    volume

    (c)

    enthalpy

    (d)

    \(\frac { mass }{ volume } \)

  171. An ideal gas expands from the volume of 1 x 10-3 m3 to 1 x 10-2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure at 1 x 105 Nm-2. The work done is

    (a)

    - 900 J

    (b)

    900 kJ

    (c)

    270 kJ

    (d)

    -900 kJ

  172. Heat of combustion is always

    (a)

    positive

    (b)

    negative

    (c)

    zero

    (d)

    either positive or negative

  173. The heat of formation of CO and CO2 are - 26.4 kcal and - 94 kcal, respectively. Heat of combustion of carbon monoxide will be

    (a)

    + 26.4 kcal

    (b)

    - 67.6 kcal

    (c)

    - 120.6 kcal

    (d)

    + 52.8 kcal

  174. C(diamond) ) ⟶ C(graphite), ΔH = -ve, this indicates that

    (a)

    graphite is more stable than diamond

    (b)

    graphite has more energy than diamond

    (c)

    both are equally stable

    (d)

    stability cannot be predicted

  175. The enthalpies of formation of Al2O3 and Cr2Oare -1596 kJ and -1134 kJ, respectively. ΔH for the reaction 2AI + Cr2O3 ⟶ 2Cr + Al2O3 is

    (a)

    - 1365 kJ

    (b)

    2730 kJ

    (c)

    - 2730 kJ

    (d)

    - 462 kJ

  176. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic function?

    (a)

    internal energy

    (b)

    enthalpy

    (c)

    entropy

    (d)

    frictional energy

  177. If one mole of ammonia and one mole of hydrogen chloride are mixed in a closed container to form ammonium chloride gas, then

    (a)

    ΔH > ΔU

    (b)

    ΔH - ΔU = 0

    (c)

    ΔH + ΔU = 0

    (d)

    ΔH < ΔU

  178. Change in internal energy, when 4 kJ of work is done on the system and 1 kJ of heat is given out by the system is

    (a)

    +1 kJ

    (b)

    - 5 kJ

    (c)

    +3 kJ

    (d)

    - 3 kJ

  179. The work done by the liberated gas when 55.85 g of iron (molar mass 55.85 g mol-1) reacts with hydrochloric acid in an open beaker at 25°C

    (a)

    - 2.48 kJ

    (b)

    -2.22 kJ

    (c)

    +2.22 kJ

    (d)

    + 2.48 kJ

  180. The value of ΔH for cooling 2 moles of an ideal monatomic gas from 125° C to 25° C at constant pressure will be [given Cp=\(\frac{5}{2}\)R]

    (a)

    - 250 R

    (b)

    - 500 R

    (c)

    500 R

    (d)

    + 250 R

  181. Given that C(g)+ O2(g) ⟶ CO2(g)ΔHo =-akJ;2CO(g)+O2(g) ⟶ 2CO2(g)ΔHo=-bkJ; Calculate the AHo for the reaction C(g)+ 1/2O2(g) ⟶ CO(g)

    (a)

    \(\frac{b+2a}{2}\)

    (b)

    2a-b

    (c)

    \(\frac{2a-b}{2}\)

    (d)

    \(\frac{b-2a}{2}\)

  182. When 15.68 litres of a gas mixture of methane and propane are fully combusted at 0° C and 1 atmosphere, 32 litres of oxygen at the same temperature and pressure are consumed. The amount of heat of released from this combustion in KJ is (ΔHc (CH4) = - 890 KJ mol-1 and ΔHc (C3H8 = - 2220 KJ mol-1)

    (a)

    - 889 K.Jmol-1

    (b)

    - 1390 K.Jmol-1

    (c)

    - 3180 K.Jmol-1

    (d)

    - 635.47 K.Jmol-1

  183. The bond dissociation energy of methane and ethane are 360 kJ mol-1 and 620 kJ mol-1 respectively. Then, the bond dissociation energy of C-C bond is

    (a)

    170 kJ mol-1

    (b)

    50 kJ mol-1

    (c)

    80 kJ mol-1

    (d)

    220 kJ mol-1

  184. The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperature is

    (a)

    ΔH<0 and ΔS>0

    (b)

    ΔH<0 and ΔS<0

    (c)

    ΔH>0 and ΔS=0

    (d)

    ΔH>0 and ΔS>0

  185. The temperature of the system, decreases in an ---------

    (a)

    Isothermal expansion

    (b)

    Isothermal Compression

    (c)

    adiabatic expansion

    (d)

    adiabatic compression

  186. In an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gas the sign of q, ΔS and ware respectively

    (a)

    +,-,-

    (b)

    -,+,-

    (c)

    +,-,+

    (d)

    -, -, +

  187. Molar heat of vapourization of a liquid is 4.8 kJ mol-1. If the entropy change is 16 J mol -1 K-1, the boiling point of the liquid is

    (a)

    323 K

    (b)

    27° C

    (c)

    164 K

    (d)

    0.3 K

  188. ΔS is expected to be maximum for the reaction

    (a)

    Ca(S)+ 1/2O2(g) ⟶ CaO(S)

    (b)

    C(S)+ O2(g) ⟶ CO2(g)

    (c)

    N2(g) + O2(g) ⟶ 2NO(g)

    (d)

    CaCO3(S) ⟶ CaO(S) + CO2(g)

  189. The values of ΔH and ΔS for a reaction are respectively 30 kJ mol-1 and 100 JK-1 mol-1. Then the temperature above which the reaction will become spontaneous is

    (a)

    300 K

    (b)

    30 K

    (c)

    100 K

    (d)

    200 C

  190. The branch of science which deals the relation between energy, heat, work and accompanying changes around us is 'called' -------

    (a)

    Thermodynamics

    (b)

    Chemical kinetics

    (c)

    Calorimetry

    (d)

    Potentiometer

  191. A fundamental goal of thermodynamics is the prediction of ------ of the process.

    (a)

    reversibility

    (b)

    rate

    (c)

    spontaneity

    (d)

    none of these

  192. A portion of matter under consideration, which is separated from rest of universe by real or imaginary boundaries is called-----

    (a)

    surroundings

    (b)

    system

    (c)

    boundary

    (d)

    Universe

  193. --------is an example for closed system.

    (a)

    Solution ofCuSO4 in a beaker

    (b)

    A gas contained in a cylinder fitted with piston

    (c)

    Hot water contained in a thermos flask

    (d)

    Tea in a cup

  194. Match the list I with list II and select the answer using the code given below the list.

    List-I List-II
    A.Pressure 1.intensive property
    B.Number of moles 2.Path function
    C.Density 3.Extensive property
    D.Work 4.State function
    (a)
    A B C D
    1 2 3 4
    (b)
    A B C D
    4 3 1 2
    (c)
    A B C D
    4 3 2 1
    (d)
    A B C D
    3 4 1 2
  195. Which among the following is not an extensive property?

    (a)

    Volume

    (b)

    internal energy

    (c)

    Mass

    (d)

    temperature

  196. For an adiabatic process

    (a)

    q = 0

    (b)

    dP = 0

    (c)

    dT = 0

    (d)

    dP = 0

  197. Which among the following is an intensive property?

    (a)

    free energy

    (b)

    heat capacity

    (c)

    volume

    (d)

    molar volume

  198. All naturally occurring processes are ----- process

    (a)

    reversible

    (b)

    irreversible

    (c)

    cyclic process

    (d)

    isochoric process

  199. The process in which no heat can flow into or out of the system are called ----- process.

    (a)

    isothermal

    (b)

    isobasic

    (c)

    isochoric

    (d)

    adiabatic

  200. The process in which temperature of the system remains constant is called ------- process

    (a)

    isobaric

    (b)

    isothermal

    (c)

    adiabatic

    (d)

    isochoric

  201. For an isothermal process.

    (a)

    q = 0

    (b)

    dV = 0

    (c)

    dT = 0

    (d)

    dP = 0

  202. The process in which volume of the system remains constant is called ------ process

    (a)

    isobaric

    (b)

    cyclic

    (c)

    isothermal

    (d)

    isochoric

  203. Which among the following is not a state function?

    (a)

    Pressure

    (b)

    Volume

    (c)

    Temperature

    (d)

    Work

  204. Internal energy is denoted by the symbol------

    (a)

    H

    (b)

    S

    (c)

    G

    (d)

    U

  205. For an isochoric process, ΔU=-----

    (a)

    w

    (b)

    q+w

    (c)

    qv

    (d)

    0

  206. Match the list I with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list.

    List-I List-II
    A.isochoric 1. dE = 0, dV = 0, dH = 0, dP= 0
    B.cyclic 2. dT=0
    C.adiabatic 3. dV=0
    D.iso thermal 4. q=0
    (a)
    A B C D
    3 1 4 2
    (b)
    A B C D
    1 3 4 2
    (c)
    A B C D
    3 1 2 4
    (d)
    A B C D
    1 2 3 4
  207. Which among the following is a state function?

    (a)

    Pressure

    (b)

    Enthalpy

    (c)

    Heat

    (d)

    Both (a) and (b)

  208. Which among the following is a path function?

    (a)

    Enthalpy

    (b)

    Free energy

    (c)

    Internal energy

    (d)

    Work

  209. For a cyclic process the volume of ΔU is

    (a)

    maximum

    (b)

    minimum

    (c)

    zero

    (d)

    does not change

  210. The SI unit of heat is--------

    (a)

    Joule

    (b)

    Calorie

    (c)

    mole

    (d)

    J mol-1

  211. If the heat flows out of the system into the surrounding, the q value becomes -------

    (a)

    +Ve

    (b)

    -Ve

    (c)

    equal to zero

    (d)

    maximum

  212. 1KJ=-----J

    (a)

    1000

    (b)

    100

    (c)

    50

    (d)

    20

  213. The gravitational work done by an object is -------

    (a)

    Qv

    (b)

    fx

    (c)

    PV

    (d)

    mgh

  214. In a compression process, Pext is -----

    (a)

    (Pint+ dP)

    (b)

    (Pint- dP)

    (c)

    (dP-Pint)

    (d)

    (-Pint+dP)

  215. For a cyclic process involving isothermal expansion of an ideal gas.

    (a)

    ∆U=qV

    (b)

    ∆U=w

    (c)

    ∆U= q + w

    (d)

    ∆U=0

  216. The extensive and intensive properties respectively are

    (a)

    entropy, enthalpy

    (b)

    entropy, temperature

    (c)

    enthalpy, entropy

    (d)

    temperature, entropy

  217. Which of the following is a state function?

    (a)

    q

    (b)

    w

    (c)

    q + w

    (d)

    All of these

  218. For the reaction PCI5(g) ⟶7 PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

    (a)

    ΔH>ΔU

    (b)

    ΔH<ΔU

    (c)

    ΔH=ΔU

    (d)

    Un predictable

  219. Pick out the true statement(s).
    (i) q and ware path functions
    (ii) q + w is a state function

    (a)

    Only (i)

    (b)

    Only (ii)

    (c)

    Both (i) and (ii)

    (d)

    Both are incorrect statements

  220. Identify the suitable condition(s) which helps the adiabatic process to occur?
    (i) ΔT = 0 (ii)ΔP = 0 (iii) q = 0 (iv) w = 0

    (a)

    Only (i)

    (b)

    Only (iii)

    (c)

    (i) and (ii)

    (d)

    (i), (ii) and (iv)

  221. -----is an intensive property

    (a)

    internal energy

    (b)

    volume

    (c)

    temperature

    (d)

    mass

  222. First law of thermodynamics does not give any information regarding-----

    (a)

    spontaneity

    (b)

    feasibility

    (c)

    both (a) & (b)

    (d)

    neither (a) nor (b)

  223. Van't Hoff equation is ___________

    (a)

    \(\triangle G^0=-\triangle H^0-T\triangle S^0\)

    (b)

    G - H - TS

    (c)

    \(\triangle G^0\) = -2.303 RT log Keq

    (d)

    \(\triangle S-\triangle H/T\)

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