Plus One Public Exam March 2019 One Mark Question Paper

11th Standard

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Chemistry

Time : 01:00:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 100
    100 x 1 = 100
  1. An element X has the following isotopic Composition 200X = 90%, 199X = 8% and 202X = 2% The Weighted average atomic mass of the element X is closet to  

    (a)

    201 u

    (b)

    202 u

    (c)

    199 u

    (d)

    200 u

  2. The equivalent mass of a trivalent metal element is 9 g eq-1 the molar mass of its anhydrous oxide is

    (a)

    102 g

    (b)

    27 g

    (c)

    270 g

    (d)

    78 g

  3. Total number of electrons present in 1.7 g of ammonia is

    (a)

    6.022 x 1023

    (b)

    \(\frac { 6.022\times { 10 }^{ 22 } }{ 1.7 } \quad \)

    (c)

    \(\frac { 6.022\times { 10 }^{ 24 } }{ 1.7 } \)

    (d)

    \(\frac { 6.022\times { 10 }^{ 23 } }{ 1.7 } \)

  4. Identify disproportionation reaction

    (a)

    CH4 + 2O2 \(\longrightarrow\) CO2+ 2H2O

    (b)

    CH4 + 4Cl2 \(\longrightarrow\) CCl4 + 4HCI

    (c)

    2F2+ 2OH \(\longrightarrow\) 2F-+ OF2+ H2O

    (d)

    2NO2 + 2OH- \(\longrightarrow\) NO-2 + NO-3 + H2O

  5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true about the following decomposition reaction.
    2KClO3 \(\longrightarrow\) 2KCl + 3O2
    (i) Potassium is undergoing oxidation
    (ii) Chlorine is undergoing oxidation
    (iii) Oxygen is reduced
    (iv) None of the species are undergoing oxidation and reduction.

    (a)

    only (iv)

    (b)

    (i) and (iv)

    (c)

    (iv) and (iii)

    (d)

    All of these

  6. Two 22.4 litre containers A and B contains 8 g of O2 and 8 g of SO2 respectively at 273 K and 1 atm pressure, then

    (a)

    Number of molecules inA and B are same

    (b)

    Number of molecules in B is more than that in A.

    (c)

    The ratio between the number of molecules in A= to number of molecules in B is 2:1

    (d)

    Number of molecules in B is three times greater than the number of molecules in A

  7. What is the mass of precipitate formed when 50 ml of 8.5 % solution of AgNO3 is mixed with 100 ml of 1.865 % potassium chloride solution?

    (a)

    3.59g

    (b)

    7g

    (c)

    14 g

    (d)

    28 g

  8. The mass of a gas that occupies a volume of 612.5 ml at room temperature and pressure (250 c and 1 atm pressure) is 1.1g. The molar mass of the gas is

    (a)

    66.25 g mol-1

    (b)

    44 g mol-1

    (c)

    24.5 g mol-1

    (d)

    662.5 g mol-1

  9. Which of the following contain same number of carbon atoms as in 6 g of carbon-12.

    (a)

    7.5 g ethane

    (b)

    8 g methane

    (c)

    both (a) and (b)

    (d)

    none of these

  10. Which one of the following is used as a standard for atomic mass.

    (a)

    6C12

    (b)

    7C12

    (c)

    6C13

    (d)

    6C14

  11. Maximum oxidation state is present in the central metal atom of which compound

    (a)

    CrO2Cl2

    (b)

    MnO2

    (c)

    [Fe(CN)6]3-

    (d)

    MnO

  12. What will be the basicity of H3BO3, which is not a protic acid?

    (a)

    One

    (b)

    Two

    (c)

    Three

    (d)

    Four

  13. Assertion: The ash produced by burning paper in air is lighter than the original mass of paper.
    Reason: he residue left after combustion of a chemical entity is always lighter

    (a)

    Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion.

    (b)

    Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion

    (c)

    Assertion is true but reason are false

    (d)

    Both assertion and reason are false

  14. How many grams are contained in 1 gram atom of Na?

    (a)

    13g

    (b)

    1 g

    (c)

    23 g

    (d)

    1/23g

  15. Based on equation E = \(-2.178\times { 10 }^{ -18 }J\left( \frac { { Z }^{ 2 } }{ { n }^{ 2 } } \right) \)certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not correct?

    (a)

    Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit

    (b)

    For n = I, the electron has a more negative energy than it does for n = 6 which means that the electron is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit

    (c)

    The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of electron bound to the nucleus is lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus.

    (d)

    Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius.

  16. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by

    (a)

    azimuthal quantum number

    (b)

    spin quantum number

    (c)

    magnetic quantum number

    (d)

     orbital quantum number

  17. Shape of an orbital is given by

    (a)

    Principal quantum number

    (b)

    Spin quantum number

    (c)

    Azimuthal quantum number

    (d)

    Magnetic quantum number

  18. What is the maximum numbers of electrons that can be associated with the following set of quantum numbers? n = 3, I = 1 and m =-1

    (a)

    4

    (b)

    6

    (c)

    2

    (d)

    = 10

  19. The total number of orbitals associated with the principal quantum number n = 3 is

    (a)

    9

    (b)

    8

    (c)

    5

    (d)

    7

  20. How many electrons in an atom with atomic number 105 can have (n + I) = 8 ? 

    (a)

    30

    (b)

    17

    (c)

    15

    (d)

    unpredictable

  21. Electron density in the yz plane of 3dxy-y2 orbital is

    (a)

    zero

    (b)

     0.50

    (c)

    0.75

    (d)

     0.90

  22. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then minimum uncertainty in velocity is

    (a)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ m } \sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } } \)

    (b)

    \( \sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } } \)

    (c)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ 2m } \sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } } \)

    (d)

    \( { \frac { h }{4\pi } } \)

  23. A macroscopic particle of mass 100 g and moving at a velocity of 100 cm S-1 will have a de Broglie wavelength of

    (a)

    6.6 x 10-29 em

    (b)

    6.6 x 10-30 em

    (c)

     6.6 x 10-31 em

    (d)

    6.6 x 10-32 em

  24. Which of the following does not represent the mathematical expression for the Heisenberg uncertainty principle?

    (a)

    \(\triangle x.\triangle p\ge \frac { h }{ 4\pi } \)

    (b)

    \(\triangle x.\triangle v\ge \frac { h }{ 4\pi m } \)

    (c)

    \(\triangle E.\triangle t\ge \frac { h }{ 4\pi } \)

    (d)

    \(\triangle E.\triangle x\ge \frac { h }{ 4\pi } \)

  25. Electronic configuration of species M2+ is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 and its atomic weight is 56. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of species M is:

    (a)

    26

    (b)

    22

    (c)

    30

    (d)

    24

  26. Which of the following experiment proves the presence of an electron in an atom?

    (a)

    Rutherford's \(\alpha\)-ray scattering experiment 

    (b)

    Davisson and Germer experiment

    (c)

    J. J. Thomson cathode ray experiment

    (d)

    G.P. Thomson gold foil experiment

  27. de Broglie equation is________________

    (a)

    E=\(h \ \gamma\)

    (b)

    E=mc2

    (c)

    \(\gamma ={E_2-E_1 \over h}\)

    (d)

    \(\lambda ={h\over mv}\)

  28. The idea of stationary orbits was first given by_________.

    (a)

    Rutherford

    (b)

    J.J. Thomson

    (c)

    Niels Bohr

    (d)

    Max Planck

  29. Which of the following statements is correct for an electron that has the quantum numbers n = 4 and in = -2.

    (a)

    The electron may be in 2p orbital

    (b)

    The electron may be in 4d orbital

    (c)

    The electron is in the second main shell

    (d)

    The electron must have spin quantum number as \(+\frac{1}{2}\)

  30. Period of an element is represented by _____ quantum number

    (a)

    Principal

    (b)

    Azimuthal

    (c)

    Magnetic

    (d)

    Spin

  31. The atomic weight of Au is ______

    (a)

    195

    (b)

    197

    (c)

    198

    (d)

    196

  32. Match the list I with List II and select the correct answer using. the code given below the lists.

    List I List II
    A Metalloid 1 Cerium
    B Noble gas 2 Nobelium
    C Trans uranium element 3 Arsenic
    D Lanthanide 4 Argon
    (a)
    A B C D
    1 3 2 4
    (b)
    A B C D
    4 2 1 3
    (c)
    A B C D
    3 4 2 1
    (d)
    A B C D
    2 1 4 3
  33. Which pair of elements has the same characteristic chemical properties?

    (a)

    Z = 13, Z = 22

    (b)

    Z = 2, Z =4

    (c)

    Z = 4, Z = 24

    (d)

    Z = 3, Z = 11

  34. "The relative tendency of a bonded atom in a molecule to attract the shared pair of electrons towards itself" is termed as_____

    (a)

    electron gain enthalpy

    (b)

    electronegativity

    (c)

    electron affinity

    (d)

    ionisation energy

  35. Which orbital diagram gives an insight to the highest ionization energy?

    (a)

    (b)

    (c)

    (d)

  36. Gadolinium belong to '4f series.Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?

    (a)

    [Xe]4f95s1

    (b)

    [Xe]4f75d16s2

    (c)

    [Xe]4f65d26s2

    (d)

    [Xe]4f8d2

  37. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of noble gases?

    (a)

    ns2 np6 nd10

    (b)

    ns2 np5

    (c)

    ns2 np6

    (d)

    ns2 np3

  38. On moving from left to right across a period in the periodic table, the metallic character__________.

    (a)

    increases

    (b)

    decreases

    (c)

    remains constant

    (d)

    first increases and then decreases

  39. Various successive ionisation enthalpies (in kJ mol-1) of an element are given below.

    IE1 IE2 IE3 IE4 IE5
    577.5 1,810 2,750 11,580 14,820

    The element is

    (a)

    phosphorus

    (b)

    Sodium

    (c)

    Aluminium

    (d)

    Silicon

  40. Identify the wrong statement.

    (a)

    Amongst the isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on cation, smaller is the ionic radius

    (b)

    Amongst isoelectric species greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic radius

    (c)

    Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table

    (d)

    Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period of the periodic table.

  41. The element with positive electron gain enthalpy is

    (a)

    Hydrogen

    (b)

    Sodium

    (c)

    Argon

    (d)

    Fluorine

  42. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correct?

    (a)

    H- > H+ > H

    (b)

    Na+ > F- > O2-

    (c)

    F > O2- > Na+

    (d)

    None of these

  43. Which of the following pairs of elements exhibit diagonal relationship?

    (a)

    Be and Mg

    (b)

    Li and Mg

    (c)

    Be and B

    (d)

    Be and Al

  44. Water gas is

    (a)

    H2O(g)

    (b)

    CO + H2O

    (c)

    CO + H2

    (d)

    CO + N2

  45. Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regard to ortho and para dihydrogen ?

    (a)

    They are nuclear spin isomers

    (b)

    Ortho isomer has zero nuclear spin whereas the para isomer has one nuclear spin

    (c)

    The para isomer is favoured at low temperatures

    (d)

    The thermal conductivity of the para isomer is 50% greater than that of the ortho isomer

  46. Tritium nucleus contains

    (a)

    1 p+0 n

    (b)

    2 p+1 n

    (c)

    1 p + 2 n

    (d)

    none of these

  47. Non-stoichiometric hydrides are formed by

    (a)

    palladium, vanadium

    (b)

    carbon, nickel

    (c)

    manganese, lithium

    (d)

    nitrogen, chlorine

  48. The hardness of water can be determined by volumetrically using the reagent

    (a)

    sodium thio sulphate

    (b)

    potassium permanganate

    (c)

    hydrogen peroxide

    (d)

    EDTA

  49. The cause of permanent hardness of water is due to

    (a)

    Ca(HCO3)2

    (b)

    Mg(HCO3)2

    (c)

    CaCl2

    (d)

    MgCO3

  50. The reaction H3PO2 + D2O ➝ H2DPO2 + HDO indicates that hypo-phosphorus acid is

    (a)

    tribasic acid

    (b)

    dibasic acid

    (c)

    mono basic acid

    (d)

    none of these

  51. Water is a

    (a)

    basic oxide

    (b)

    acidic oxide

    (c)

    amphoteric oxide

    (d)

    none of these

  52. Match the list Iwith List IIand select the correct answer using. the code given below the lists.

    List I List II
    A H2O2 1 SiH4
    B D2O 2 PdH
    C Metallic hydride 3 Bleach
    D Molecular hydride 4 Study of reaction mechanism
    (a)
    A B C D
    1 3 2 4
    (b)
    A B C D
    4 3 1 2
    (c)
    A B C D
    3 4 2 1
    (d)
    A B C D
    2 1 4 3
  53. Choose the incorrect statement:

    (a)

    The boiling points of both deuterium and tritium are higher than that of protium.

    (b)

    The inter nuclear distances between the two bonded atoms are different in all the isotopes.

    (c)

    Enthalpy of dissociation is high in tritium

    (d)

    both (b) and (c)

  54. Which of the following is electron precise hydride?

    (a)

    B2H6

    (b)

    NH3

    (c)

    H20

    (d)

    CH4

  55. Which set of the metals do not have any effect on water?

    (a)

    Ag, Au, Pt

    (b)

    Na, Mg, Al

    (c)

    Fe, Ca, Zn

    (d)

    Fe, Pb, Na

  56. Consider the following statements.
    (i) Silver, Gold, Mercury and Platinum do not have any effect on water.
    (ii) Carbon, Sulphur and Phosphorous do not react with water.
    (iii) Beryllium reacts with water less violently.
    Which of the following statements is/are not correct?

    (a)

    (i) only

    (b)

    (ii) and (iii)

    (c)

    (iii) only

    (d)

    (ii) only

  57. Hydrogen resembles halogens in many respects for which several factors are responsible. Of the following factors which one is most important in this respect?

    (a)

    Its tendency to lose an electron to form a cation

    (b)

    Its tendency to gain an electron to attain stable electronic configuration.

    (c)

    Its low negative electron gain enthalpy value

    (d)

    Its small size

  58. Assertion: Permanent hardness of water is removed by treatment with washing soda.
    Reason: Washing soda reacts with soluble calcium and magnesium chlorides and sulphates in hard water to form insoluble carbonates

    (a)

    Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

    (b)

    Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

    (c)

    Assertion is true but reason is false

    (d)

    Both assertion and reason are false

  59. Which of the following compounds will not evolve H2 gas on reaction with alkali metals?

    (a)

    ethanoic acid

    (b)

    ethanol

    (c)

    phenol

    (d)

    none of these

  60. RbO2 is

    (a)

    superoxide and paramagnetic

    (b)

    peroxide and diamagnetic

    (c)

    superoxide and diamagnetic

    (d)

    peroxide and paramagnetic

  61. Assertion : BeSO4 is soluble in water while BaSO4 is not
    Reason : Hydration energy decreases down the group from Be to Ba and lattice energy remains almost constant.

    (a)

    both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

    (b)

    both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

    (c)

    assertion is true but reason is false

    (d)

    both assertion and reason are false.

  62. The compound (X) on heating gives a colourless gas and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain (B). Excess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of B, C is formed. Solid (C) on heating gives back X. (B) is

    (a)

    CaCO3

    (b)

    Ca(OH)2

    (c)

    Na2CO3

    (d)

    NaHCO3

  63. When CaC2 is heated in atmospheric nitrogen in an electric furnace the compound formed is

    (a)

    Ca(CN)2

    (b)

    CaNCN

    (c)

    CaC2N2

    (d)

    CaNC2

  64. Among the following the least thermally stable is

    (a)

    K2CO3

    (b)

    Na2CO3

    (c)

    BaCO3

    (d)

    Li2CO3

  65. Spodumene is the silicate mineral of _____

    (a)

    lithium

    (b)

    sodium

    (c)

    cesium

    (d)

    francium

  66. Dead burnt plaster is ________

    (a)

    CaSO4

    (b)

    CaSO4·1/2H20

    (c)

    CaSO4.H2O

    (d)

    CaSO4.2H20

  67. Several blocks of magnesium are fixed to the bottom of a ship to

    (a)

    Keep away the sharks

    (b)

    prevent of rusting of iron ships

    (c)

    make the ship lighter

    (d)

    prevent puncturing by under sea rocks

  68. Quick lime is:

    (a)

    CaCO3

    (b)

    CaO

    (c)

    CaSO4.2H2O

    (d)

    Ca(OH)2

  69. Which one of the following metal act as co-factor in phosphate transfer of ATP by enzymes?

    (a)

    Calcium

    (b)

    Beryllium

    (c)

    Magnesium

    (d)

    Sodium

  70. Which alkaline earth metal do not import colour to a non-Iuminous flame?

    (a)

    Beryllium

    (b)

    Calcium

    (c)

    Magnesium

    (d)

    Barium

  71. Which of the following is used in photoelectric cells?

    (a)

    Na

    (b)

    K

    (c)

    Li

    (d)

    Cs

  72. The temperatures at which real gases obey the ideal gas laws over a wide range of pressure is called

    (a)

    Critical temperature

    (b)

    Boyle temperature

    (c)

    Inversion temperature

    (d)

    Reduced temperature

  73. A bottle of ammonia and a bottle of HCI connected through a long tube are opened simultaneously at both ends. The white ammonium chloride ring first formed will be

    (a)

    At the center of the tube

    (b)

    Near the hydrogen chloride bottle

    (c)

    Near the ammonia bottle

    (d)

    Throughout the length of the tube

  74. The value of universal gas constant depends upon

    (a)

    Temperature of the gas

    (b)

    Volume of the gas

    (c)

    Number of moles of the gas

    (d)

    units of Pressure and volume.

  75. The table indicates the value of van der Waals constant 'a' in (dm3)2 atm. mol-2.

    Gas O2 N2 NH3 CH4
    a 1.360 1.390 4.170 2.253

    The gas which can be most easily liquefied is

    (a)

    O2

    (b)

    N2

    (c)

    NH3

    (d)

    CH4

  76. If temperature and volume of an ideal gas is increased to twice its values, the initial pressure P becomes

    (a)

    4P

    (b)

    2P

    (c)

    P

    (d)

    3P

  77. Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container, with a pin-hole through which both can escape what fraction of oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape.

    (a)

    \(\frac { 3 }{ 8 } \)

    (b)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

    (c)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 } \)

    (d)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \)

  78. If the volume of a fixed mass of a gas is reduced to half at constant temperature, the gas pressure _____________

    (a)

    remains constant

    (b)

    doubles

    (c)

    reduces to half

    (d)

    becomes zero

  79. Match the list - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    List-I List-II
    A. \(\frac { { r }_{ 1 } }{ { r }_{ 2 } } =\sqrt { \frac { { M }_{ 2 } }{ { M }_{ 1 } } } \) 1. Boyle's law
    B. PV = constant 2. Graham's law
    C. \(\frac { V }{ T } =constant\) 3. Ideal gas
    D. PV=nRt 4. Charle's law
    (a)
    A B C D
    1 2 3 4
    (b)
    A B C D
    4 3 2 1
    (c)
    A B C D
    2 1 4 3
    (d)
    A B C D
    1 3 4 2
  80. A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most likely to obey the ideal gas law at

    (a)

    High temperature and high pressure

    (b)

    High temperature and low pressure

    (c)

    Low temperature and high pressure

    (d)

    Low temperature and high pressure

  81. In a closed room of 1000 m3 a perfume bottle is opened up. The room develops smell. This is due to which property of gases

    (a)

    Viscosity

    (b)

    Density

    (c)

    Diffusion

    (d)

    None

  82. Which of the following diagram directly describes the behaviour of a fixed mass of an ideal gas?

    (a)

    (b)

    (c)

    (d)

  83. The instrument used for measuring the atmospheric pressure is ___________.

    (a)

    lactometer

    (b)

    barometer

    (c)

    electrometer

    (d)

    ammeter

  84. Which one of the following is absolute zero?

    (a)

    293 K

    (b)

    273 K

    (c)

    -273.15o C

    (d)

    0o C

  85. In an adiabatic process, which of the following is true?

    (a)

    q = w

    (b)

    q = 0

    (c)

    ΔE = q

    (d)

    PΔV= 0

  86. An ideal gas expands from the volume of 1 x 10-3 m3 to 1 x 10-2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure at 1 x 105 Nm-2. The work done is

    (a)

    - 900 J

    (b)

    900 kJ

    (c)

    270 kJ

    (d)

    -900 kJ

  87. The heat of formation of CO and CO2 are - 26.4 kcal and - 94 kcal, respectively. Heat of combustion of carbon monoxide will be

    (a)

    + 26.4 kcal

    (b)

    - 67.6 kcal

    (c)

    - 120.6 kcal

    (d)

    + 52.8 kcal

  88. Given that C(g)+ O2(g) ⟶ CO2(g)ΔHo =-akJ;2CO(g)+O2(g) ⟶ 2CO2(g)ΔHo=-bkJ; Calculate the AHo for the reaction C(g)+ 1/2O2(g) ⟶ CO(g)

    (a)

    \(\frac{b+2a}{2}\)

    (b)

    2a-b

    (c)

    \(\frac{2a-b}{2}\)

    (d)

    \(\frac{b-2a}{2}\)

  89. In an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gas the sign of q, ΔS and ware respectively

    (a)

    +,-,-

    (b)

    -,+,-

    (c)

    +,-,+

    (d)

    -, -, +

  90. The values of ΔH and ΔS for a reaction are respectively 30 kJ mol-1 and 100 JK-1 mol-1. Then the temperature above which the reaction will become spontaneous is

    (a)

    300 K

    (b)

    30 K

    (c)

    100 K

    (d)

    200 C

  91. For an isothermal process.

    (a)

    q = 0

    (b)

    dV = 0

    (c)

    dT = 0

    (d)

    dP = 0

  92. Which among the following is not a state function?

    (a)

    Pressure

    (b)

    Volume

    (c)

    Temperature

    (d)

    Work

  93. When water freezes in a glass beaker, ΔS of the system _____

    (a)

    ΔS>0

    (b)

    ΔS<0

    (c)

    ΔS=0

    (d)

    ΔS≥0

  94. What is correct about ΔG

    (a)

    It is zero for reversible reaction

    (b)

    It is positive for spontaneous reactions

    (c)

    It is negative for non-spontaneous reaction

    (d)

    It is zero for non-spontaneous reaction

  95. Solve: ΔH=10 k cal mol-1, ΔS=20 cal deg-1 mol-1 and T=300k. Then ΔG=?

    (a)

    -18,000 cals mol-1

    (b)

    18,000 cals mol-1

    (c)

    -16,000 cals mol-1

    (d)

    4000 cals mol-1

  96. Which of the following is a state function?

    (a)

    q

    (b)

    \(\Delta\)q

    (c)

    w

    (d)

    \(\Delta\)S

  97. The enthalpy of vapourisation of a liquid is 30 kJ mol -1 and the entropy of vapourisation is 75 JK -1 mol-1. The boiling point of the liquid at 1 atm is:

    (a)

    250K

    (b)

    400K

    (c)

    450K

    (d)

    600K

  98. For the reaction, X2 O4(l) \(\rightarrow\) 2 XO2 (g), \(\Delta\)U=2.1 Kcal, \(\Delta\)S = 20 cal K-1 at 300 K. Hence,\(\Delta\)G is:

    (a)

    2.7 Kcal

    (b)

    -2.7 Kcal

    (c)

    9.3 K.=cal

    (d)

    -9.3 Kcal

  99. Hot water in a thermos flask is an example of ______

    (a)

    closed system

    (b)

    open system

    (c)

    isolated system

    (d)

    isochoric system

  100. Which one of the following is not a path function?

    (a)

    Work

    (b)

    Heat

    (c)

    Pressure

    (d)

    Either (a) or (b)

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