#### 11th Public Exam March 2019 Important One Marks Questions

11th Standard

Reg.No. :
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Chemistry

Time : 00:45:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 100
100 x 1 = 100
1. Assertion: Two mole of glucose contains 12.044 x 1023 molecules of glucose
Reason: Total number of entities present in one mole of any substance is equal to 6.02 x 1022

(a)

both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b)

both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(c)

an assertion is true but reason is false

(d)

both assertion and reason are false

2. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at 273 K at 1 atm the moles of HCl (g), formed is equal to

(a)

2 moles of HCI (g)

(b)

0.5 moles of HCI (g)

(c)

1.5 moles of HCI (g)

(d)

1 moles of HCI (g)

3. 7.5 g of a gas occupies a volume of 5.6 litres at 0° C and 1 atm pressure. The gas is

(a)

NO

(b)

N2O

(c)

CO

(d)

CO2

4. The equivalent mass of ferrous oxalate is __________.

(a)

$\frac { molar\ mass\ of\ ferrousoxalate }{ 1 }$

(b)

$\frac { molar\ mass\ of\ ferrousoxalate }{ 2 }$

(c)

$\frac { molar\ mass\ of\ ferrousoxalate }{ 3 }$

(d)

None of these

5. Two 22.4 litre containers A and B contains 8 g of O2 and 8 g of SO2 respectively at 273 K and 1 atm pressure, then

(a)

Number of molecules inA and B are same

(b)

Number of molecules in B is more than that in A.

(c)

The ratio between the number of molecules in A= to number of molecules in B is 2:1

(d)

Number of molecules in B is three times greater than the number of molecules in A

6. Which of the following compound(s) has /have a percentage of carbon same as that in ethylene (C2H4)

(a)

propene

(b)

ethyne

(c)

benzene

(d)

ethane

7. Which one of the following is used as a standard for atomic mass.

(a)

6C12

(b)

7C12

(c)

6C13

(d)

6C14

8. Match the list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

 List-I List-II A Molecular formula 1 Completely consumed B Stoichiometric Equation 2 Left unreacted C Limiting reagent 3 n x Empirical formula D Excess reagent 4 Balanced equation
(a)
 A B C D 3 4 2 1
(b)
 A B C D 3 4 1 2
(c)
 A B C D 4 3 1 2
(d)
 A B C D 4 3 1 2
9. The equivalent mass of potassium permanganate in alkaline medium is:
MnO4- + 2H2O + 3e-$\rightarrow$ MnO2 + 4OH-

(a)

31.6

(b)

52.7

(c)

79

(d)

None of these

10. The mass of one molecule of HI in grams is:

(a)

2.125 x 10-22

(b)

128

(c)

127

(d)

6.02 x 10-23

11. How many H2O molecules are there in a snowflake weighing 1 mg?

(a)

3.35 x 1019

(b)

6.023 x 1023

(c)

3.35 x 10-19

(d)

100

12. Which one of the following is not a redox reaction?

(a)

Rusting of iron

(b)

Extraction of metal Na

(c)

Electroplating

(d)

Aluminothermic process

13. The oxidation number of Cr in K2Cr2O7 is ___________.

(a)

+4

(b)

+6

(c)

0

(d)

+7

14. How many grams are contained in 1 gram atom of Na?

(a)

13g

(b)

1 g

(c)

23 g

(d)

1/23g

15. The energies E1and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths ie $\lambda$1 and$\lambda$2 will be

(a)

$\frac { { \lambda }_{ 1 } }{ { \lambda }_{ 2 } } =1$

(b)

${ \lambda }_{ 1 }=2{ \lambda }_{ 2 }$

(c)

${ \lambda }_{ 1 }=\sqrt { 25\times 50{ \lambda }_{ 2 } }$

(d)

$2{ \lambda }_{ 1 }={ \lambda }_{ 2 }$

16. Based on equation E = $-2.178\times { 10 }^{ -18 }J\left( \frac { { Z }^{ 2 } }{ { n }^{ 2 } } \right)$certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not correct?

(a)

Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit

(b)

For n = I, the electron has a more negative energy than it does for n = 6 which means that the electron is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit

(c)

The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of electron bound to the nucleus is lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus.

(d)

Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius.

17. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by

(a)

azimuthal quantum number

(b)

spin quantum number

(c)

magnetic quantum number

(d)

orbital quantum number

18. The maximum number of electrons in a sub shell is given by the expression

(a)

2n2

(b)

21+ I

(c)

41+ 2

(d)

none of these

19. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers:

 n 1 m s (i) 3 0 0 +$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ (ii) 2 2 1 -$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ (iii) 4 3 -2 +$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ (iv) 1 0 -1 +$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ (v) 3 4 3 -$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$

Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible?

(a)

(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(b)

(ii), (iv) and (v)

(c)

(i) and (iii) .

(d)

(ii), (iii) and (iv)

20. How many electrons in an atom with atomic number 105 can have (n + I) = 8 ?

(a)

30

(b)

17

(c)

15

(d)

unpredictable

21. Electron density in the yz plane of 3dxy-y2 orbital is

(a)

zero

(b)

0.50

(c)

0.75

(d)

0.90

22. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then minimum uncertainty in velocity is

(a)

$\frac { 1 }{ m } \sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } }$

(b)

$\sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } }$

(c)

$\frac { 1 }{ 2m } \sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } }$

(d)

${ \frac { h }{4\pi } }$

23. The ratio of de Broglie wavelengths of a deuterium atom to that of an u - particle, when the velocity of the former is five times greater than that of later, is

(a)

4

(b)

0.2

(c)

2.5

(d)

0.4

24. J. J. Thomson's cathode ray experiment revealed that atoms consist of

(a)

electrons

(b)

protons

(c)

neutrons

(d)

photons

25. If En = -313.6/n2,If the value of Ei = -34.84 to which value 'n' corresponds

(a)

4

(b)

3

(c)

2

(d)

1

26. Assertion: Number of radial and angular nodes for 3p orbital are 1, 1 respectively.
Reason: Number of radial and angular nodes depends only on principal quantum number.

(a)

both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b)

both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c)

assertion is true but reason is false

(d)

both assertion and reason are false

27. Assertion (A): The orbitals having equal energy are known as degenerate orbitals.
Reason (R): The three 2p orbitals are degenerate is the presence of external magnetic field.

(a)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c)

A is true but R is false

(d)

Both A and R are false

28. The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated is:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

29. Match the list-I and list-II correctly using the code given below the list.

List-I List-II
A. Principal quantum number 1.represents the directional orientation of orbital
B. Azimuthal quantum number 2.represents the spin of the electron
C. Magnetic quantum number 3.represents the main shell
D. Spin quantum number 4.represents the sub shell
(a)
 A B C D 3 4 1 2
(b)
 A B C D 4 2 3 1
(c)
 A B C D 2 1 4 3
(d)
 A B C D 1 3 2 4
30. Match the list I with List II and select the correct answer using. the code given below the lists.

 List I List II A Chancourtois 1 Addition of synthetic elements B Rang 2 Families and periods Long form C Glenn Seaborg 3 Modem periodic law D Moseley 4 First periodic law
(a)
 A B C D 1 3 2 4
(b)
 A B C D 4 2 1 3
(c)
 A B C D 3 4 1 2
(d)
 A B C D 2 1 4 3
31. Consider the following statements according to modern periodic table.
(i) Modern periodic table contains 18 vertical columns and 7 horizontal rows.
(ii) The elements after uranium are called transuranium elements
(iii) The 17th group elements are called chalcogens
(iv) The elements of Groups 13 to 18 are called p-block elements.
which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct.

(a)

(i), (iii) & (iv)

(b)

(i), (ii) & (iii)

(c)

(i), (ii) & (iv)

(d)

all the 4 statements

32. There are _____ periods in the periodic table.

(a)

18

(b)

7

(c)

6

(d)

5

33. The number of elements in the first period of the modern periodic table is _____

(a)

2

(b)

8

(c)

18

(d)

32

34. Match the list I with List II and select the correct answer using. the code given below the lists.

 List I List II A Metalloid 1 Cerium B Noble gas 2 Nobelium C Trans uranium element 3 Arsenic D Lanthanide 4 Argon
(a)
 A B C D 1 3 2 4
(b)
 A B C D 4 2 1 3
(c)
 A B C D 3 4 2 1
(d)
 A B C D 2 1 4 3
35. With respect to chlorine, hydrogen will be

(a)

Electropositive

(b)

Electronegative

(c)

Neutral

(d)

None of these

36. Which of the following property has no unit?

(a)

ionisation energy

(b)

electronegativity

(c)

electron affinity

(d)

37. Which set of elements shows positive electron gain enthalpy?

(a)

He,N,O

(b)

Ne,N,Cl

(c)

O,Cl,F

(d)

N,He,Ne

38. The most electronegative element possess the electronic configuration______.

(a)

ns2 np2

(b)

ns2 np4

(c)

ns2 np5

(d)

ns2 np3

39. In the third period the first ionization potential is of the order.

(a)

Na > Al > Mg > Si > P

(b)

Na < Al < Mg < Si < P

(c)

Mg > Na > Si > P > Al

(d)

Na< Al < Mg < Si < P

40. Which one of the following arrangements represent the correct order of least negative to most negative electron gain enthalpy

(a)

Al < O < C < Ca < F

(b)

Al < Ca < O < C < F

(c)

C < F < O < Al < Ca

(d)

Ca < Al < C < O < F

41. The correct order of decreasing electronegativity values among the elements X, Y, Z and A with atomic numbers 4, 8, 7 and 12 respectively

(a)

Y > Z > X > A

(b)

Z > A > Y > X

(c)

X > Y > Z > A

(d)

X > Y > A > Z

42. IE1 and IE2 of Mg are 179 and 348 kcal mol-1 respectively. The energy required for the reaction Mg⟶ Mg2+ + 2e- is

(a)

+169 kcal mol-1

(b)

- 169 kcal mol-1

(c)

+ 527 kcal mol-1

(d)

- 527 kcal mol-1

43. The First ionisation potential of Na, Mg and Si are 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol-1 respectively. The ionisation potential of Al will be closer to

(a)

760 kJ mol-1

(b)

575 kJ mol-1

(c)

801 kJ mol-1

(d)

419 kJ mol-1

44. Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regard to ortho and para dihydrogen ?

(a)

They are nuclear spin isomers

(b)

Ortho isomer has zero nuclear spin whereas the para isomer has one nuclear spin

(c)

The para isomer is favoured at low temperatures

(d)

The thermal conductivity of the para isomer is 50% greater than that of the ortho isomer

45. Ionic hydrides are formed by

(a)

halogens

(b)

chalogens

(c)

inert gases

(d)

group one elements

46. Tritium nucleus contains

(a)

1 p+0 n

(b)

2 p+1 n

(c)

1 p + 2 n

(d)

none of these

47. Zeolite used to soften hardness of water is hydrated

(a)

Sodium aluminium silicate

(b)

Calcium aluminium silicate

(c)

Zinc aluminium borate

(d)

Lithium aluminium hydride

48. When hydrogen peroxide is shaken with an acidified solution of potassium dichromate in presence of ether, the ethereal layer turns blue due to the formation of

(a)

Cr2O3

(b)

${ CrO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }$

(c)

CrO(O2)2

(d)

none of these

49. For decolorisation of 1 mole of acidified KMnO4, the moles of H2O2 required is

(a)

$\frac{1}{2}$

(b)

$\frac{3}{2}$

(c)

$\frac{5}{2}$

(d)

$\frac{7}{2}$

50. Volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 is

(a)

1.5

(b)

4.5

(c)

16.8

(d)

8.4

51. The hybridisation of oxygen atom is H2O and H2O2 are, respectively

(a)

sp and Sp3

(b)

sp and sp

(c)

Sp and Sp2

(d)

Sp3and Sp3

52. Hydrogen is used in _________

(a)

hydrogenation of oils

(b)

fuel cells

(c)

gas bags for air ships

(d)

all the above

53. In which of the following compounds does hydrogen has an oxidation state of -1?

(a)

CH4

(b)

NH3

(c)

HCl

(d)

CaH2

54. A example of covalent hydride is ____________

(a)

CaH2

(b)

CH4

(c)

TiH

(d)

all the above

55. Which one of the metal is used to convert para hydrogen into ortho hydrogen?

(a)

Copper

(b)

Aluminium

(c)

Sodium

(d)

Platinum

56. Match the List-I and List-II using the correct code given below the list.

 List-I List-II A. Hydrogenation of unsaturated vegetable oils 1. Rocket fuel B. Calcium hydride 2. Welding of metals C. Liquid hydrogen 3. Desiccant D. Atomic hydrogen 4. Margarine
(a)
 A B C D 4 3 1 2
(b)
 A B C D 3 4 2 1
(c)
 A B C D 1 3 4 2
(d)
 A B C D 2 1 4 3
57. Consider the following statements.
(i) H2Ois a powerful oxidising agent.
(ii) H2O is stored in dark coloured bottles.
(iii) H2Ois used as moderator in nuclear reactors.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct

(a)

(i) only

(b)

(i) and (ii)

(c)

(iii) only

(d)

(i), (ii) and (iii)

58. Assertion: Permanent hardness of water is removed by treatment with washing soda.
Reason: Washing soda reacts with soluble calcium and magnesium chlorides and sulphates in hard water to form insoluble carbonates

(a)

Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b)

Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c)

Assertion is true but reason is false

(d)

Both assertion and reason are false

59. RbO2 is

(a)

superoxide and paramagnetic

(b)

peroxide and diamagnetic

(c)

superoxide and diamagnetic

(d)

peroxide and paramagnetic

60. Find the wrong statement

(a)

sodium metal is used in organic qualitative analysis

(b)

sodium carbonate is soluble in water and it is used in inorganic qualitative analysis

(c)

potassium carbonate can be prepared by solvay process

(d)

potassium bicarbonate is acidic salt

61. In which process, fused sodium hydroxide is electro lysed for extraction of sodium

(a)

Castner's process

(b)

Cyanide process

(c)

Down process

(d)

All of these

62. The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is

(a)

Ca(CN)3

(b)

CaN2

(c)

CaCN2

(d)

Ca3N2

63. Assertion : BeSO4 is soluble in water while BaSO4 is not
Reason : Hydration energy decreases down the group from Be to Ba and lattice energy remains almost constant.

(a)

both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b)

both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(c)

assertion is true but reason is false

(d)

both assertion and reason are false.

64. Among the following the least thermally stable is

(a)

K2CO3

(b)

Na2CO3

(c)

BaCO3

(d)

Li2CO3

65. Which hydroxide decomposes on heating?

(a)

NaOH

(b)

RbOH

(c)

KOH

(d)

LiOH.

66. Assertion : Alkaline earth metals are harder than alkali metals
Reason : Atomic radii of alkaline earth metals are smaller than corresponding alkali metals "in the same periods of periodic table

(a)

Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation for assertion.

(b)

Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion

(c)

Assertion is true but reason are false

(d)

Both assertion and reason are false

67. Which is insoluble in water?

(a)

CaF2

(b)

CaCI

(c)

HgCl2

(d)

Ca(NO3)2

68. Consider the following statements.
(i) Superoxides of alkali metals are diamagnetic.
(ii) Superoxides of alkali metals are blue in colour.
(iii) Superoxides of alkali metals are paramagnetic.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

(a)

(i) only

(b)

(ii) only

(c)

(iii) only

(d)

(i) and (ii)

69. Copper chloride produces __________ colour in fire works

(a)

red

(b)

green

(c)

blue

(d)

yellow

70. Correctly match the list-I and list-II using the code given below the list

List-I List-I
A Beryllium 1 Sacrificial anode
B Calcium 2 X-ray tube radiation window
C Magnesium 3 Scavenger to remove oxygen in TV
D Barium 4 Getter in vacuum tubes
(a)
 A B C D 4 2 3 1
(b)
 A B C D 2 4 1 3
(c)
 A B C D 3 1 4 2
(d)
 A B C D 1 3 2 4
71. Match the list-I and list-Il using the correct code given below the list.

List-I List-II
A Manufacture of soap 1 Na2CO3.10H2O
B Mild antiseptic 2 Liquid Na metal
C Softening of hard water 3 NaOH
D Coolant in nuclear reactor 4 NaHCO3
(a)
A B C D
4 3 2 1
(b)
A B C D
3 4 1 2
(c)
A B C D
2 1 3 4
(d)
A B C D
1 2 4 3
72. Rate of diffusion of a gas is

(a)

directly proportional to its density

(b)

directly proportional to its molecular weight

(c)

directly proportional to its square root of its molecular weight

(d)

inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight

73. Which of the following is the correct expression for the equation of state of van der Waals gas?

(a)

$\left( P+\frac { a }{ { n }^{ 2 }{ V }^{ 2 } } \right) (V-nb)=nRT$

(b)

$\left( P+\frac { na }{ { n }^{ 2 }{ V }^{ 2 } } \right) (V-nb)=nRT$

(c)

$\left( P+\frac { { an }^{ 2 } }{ { V }^{ 2 } } \right) (V-nb)=nRT$

(d)

$\left( \frac { P+{ n }^{ 2 }{ a }^{ 2 } }{ { V }^{ 2 } } \right) (V-ab)=nRT$

74. The value of universal gas constant depends upon

(a)

Temperature of the gas

(b)

Volume of the gas

(c)

Number of moles of the gas

(d)

units of Pressure and volume.

75. Use of hot air balloon in sports at meteorological observation is an application of

(a)

Boyle's law

(b)

Newton's law

(c)

Kelvin's law

(d)

Brown's law

76. Consider the following statements
i) Atmospheric pressure is less at the top of a mountain than at sea level
ii) Gases are much more compressible than solids or liquids
iii) When the atmospheric pressure increases the height of the mercury column rises.
Select the correct statement

(a)

I and II

(b)

II and III

(c)

I and III

(d)

I, II and III

77. If temperature and volume of an ideal gas is increased to twice its values, the initial pressure P becomes

(a)

4P

(b)

2P

(c)

P

(d)

3P

78. The law that relates the pressure and volume of gases is

(a)

Boyle's

(b)

Charles

(c)

Dalton

(d)

none of the above

79. Rate of diffusion of a gas is

(a)

Directly proportional to its density

(b)

Directly proportional to its molecular weight

(c)

Directly proportional to its square root of its molecular weight

(d)

Inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight

80. In a closed room of 1000 m3 a perfume bottle is opened up. The room develops smell. This is due to which property of gases

(a)

Viscosity

(b)

Density

(c)

Diffusion

(d)

None

81. Which mixture of gases at room temperature does not obey Dalton's law of partial pressure?

(a)

NO2 and O2

(b)

SO2 and SO3

(c)

CO and CO2

(d)

NH3 and HCI

82. The temperature at which the volume of the gas becomes zero is:

(a)

0oC

(b)

0 K

(c)

0 F

(d)

none of these

83. The average kinetic energy of the gas molecule is __________.

(a)

inversely proportional to its absolute temperature

(b)

directly proportional to its absolute temperature

(c)

equal to the square of its absolute temperature

(d)

All of the above

84. The ideal gas equation is ____________.

(a)

PV = RT for 1 mole

(b)

P1V1 = P2V2

(c)

$\frac{P}{T}=R$

(d)

P = P1 + P2 + P3

85. In an adiabatic process, which of the following is true?

(a)

q = w

(b)

q = 0

(c)

ΔE = q

(d)

PΔV= 0

86. C(diamond) ) ⟶ C(graphite), ΔH = -ve, this indicates that

(a)

graphite is more stable than diamond

(b)

graphite has more energy than diamond

(c)

both are equally stable

(d)

stability cannot be predicted

87. The enthalpies of formation of Al2O3 and Cr2Oare -1596 kJ and -1134 kJ, respectively. ΔH for the reaction 2AI + Cr2O3 ⟶ 2Cr + Al2O3 is

(a)

- 1365 kJ

(b)

2730 kJ

(c)

- 2730 kJ

(d)

- 462 kJ

88. Given that C(g)+ O2(g) ⟶ CO2(g)ΔHo =-akJ;2CO(g)+O2(g) ⟶ 2CO2(g)ΔHo=-bkJ; Calculate the AHo for the reaction C(g)+ 1/2O2(g) ⟶ CO(g)

(a)

$\frac{b+2a}{2}$

(b)

2a-b

(c)

$\frac{2a-b}{2}$

(d)

$\frac{b-2a}{2}$

89. In an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gas the sign of q, ΔS and ware respectively

(a)

+,-,-

(b)

-,+,-

(c)

+,-,+

(d)

-, -, +

90. Molar heat of vapourization of a liquid is 4.8 kJ mol-1. If the entropy change is 16 J mol -1 K-1, the boiling point of the liquid is

(a)

323 K

(b)

27° C

(c)

164 K

(d)

0.3 K

91. Thermodynamics does not deal with

(a)

the feasibility of a chemical reaction

(b)

energy changes involved in chemical reaction

(c)

the extent to which a chemical reaction process

(d)

the rate at which a reaction occurs

92. In an exothermic reaction, heat is evolved and system loses heat to the surroundings. For such system
(i) qp will be negative
(ii) ΔrH will be positive
(iii) qp  will be positive
(iv) ΔrH will be negative

(a)

(i), (ii)

(b)

(iii), (iv)

(c)

(i) & (iv)

(d)

(ii) & (iii)

93. Which is true about cyclic process?

(a)

ΔU=0; ΔH=0

(b)

ΔU>0; ΔH<0

(c)

ΔH=0; ΔU<0

(d)

ΔU=0; ΔH<0

94. The final temperature of an engine whose initial temperature is 400K and having efficiency 25%

(a)

200K

(b)

400K

(c)

300K

(d)

450K

95. The unit of entropy is:

(a)

J K-1 mol-1

(b)

J mol-1

(c)

J K mol-1

(d)

J-1K-1

96. If system moves from ordered state to disordered state, its entropy:

(a)

Decreases

(b)

Increases

(c)

Become zero

(d)

Increases then decreases

97. In general, for an exothermic reaction to be spontaneous:

(a)

temp should be high

(b)

temp should be zero

(c)

temp should be low

(d)

temp has no effect

98. The pressure-volume work for an ideal gas can be calculated by using the expression.
$w=-\int _{ { v }_{ i } }^{ { v }_{ f } }{ { P }_{ ext }.{ dV }_{ t } }$
The work can also be calculated from the PV plot by using the area. Under the curve within the specified limits. When an ideal gas is compressed (a) reversibly or (b) irreversibly from volume Vi to Vf, choose the correct option:

(a)

w (reversible) = W (irreversible)

(b)

w (reversible) < W (irreversible)

(c)

W (reversible) > W (irreversible)

(d)

W (reversible) = W (irreversible)

99. Which one of the following is not an extensive property?

(a)

Density

(b)

Molarity

(c)

Molality

(d)

Mole

100. Van't Hoff equation is ___________

(a)

$\triangle G^0=-\triangle H^0-T\triangle S^0$

(b)

G - H - TS

(c)

$\triangle G^0$ = -2.303 RT log Keq

(d)

$\triangle S-\triangle H/T$