New ! Chemistry MCQ Practise Tests



Full Portion - Important One Mark Question Paper

11th Standard

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Chemistry

Time : 01:30:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 100

    Multiple Choice Question

    100 x 1 = 100
  1. Carbon forms two oxides, namely carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. The equivalent mass of which element remains constant ?

    (a)

    Carbon

    (b)

    Oxygen

    (c)

    Both carbon and oxygen

    (d)

    Neither carbon nor oxygen

  2. The oxidation number of oxygen in O2 is__________

    (a)

    0

    (b)

    +1

    (c)

    +2

    (d)

    -2

  3. 7.5 g of a gas occupies a volume of 5.6 litres at 0° C and 1 atm pressure. The gas is ________.

    (a)

    NO

    (b)

    N2O

    (c)

    CO

    (d)

    CO2

  4. Give an example of molecule in which the ratio of the molecular formula is six times the empirical formula.

    (a)

    C6H12O6

    (b)

    CH2O

    (c)

    CH4

    (d)

    NA2CO3

  5. The compound in which mass percentage of carbon is 75% and that of hydrogen is 25% is _____________.

    (a)

    C2H6

    (b)

    C2H2

    (c)

    CH4

    (d)

    C2H4

  6. A gas is found to have a formula (CO)x. If its vapour density is 70, the value of X is 

    (a)

    2.3

    (b)

    3.0

    (c)

    5.0

    (d)

    6.0

  7. When 22.4 L of \({ H }_{ 2 }\)(g) is mixed with 11.2 L of \({ Cl }_{ 2 }\)(g) each at STP, the moles of HCl (g) formed is equal to 

    (a)

    1 mole of HCl (g)

    (b)

    2 moles of HCL(g)

    (c)

    0.5 mole of HCL (g)

    (d)

    1.5 mole HCL (g)

  8. Which is limiting reagent in the above case in question (73)?

    (a)

    BaCI2

    (b)

    H2SO2

    (c)

    Both (a) and (b)

    (d)

    None of the above

  9. Which choice best describeds the degree of uncertainty in the measurement of 16.30 g?

    (a)

    The uncertainty cannot be determined without additional information

    (b)

    The quantity is exat

    (c)

    \(\pm \) 0.10 g

    (d)

    \(\pm \) 0.01 g

  10. The percentage weight of Zn in white vitriol [ ZnSO4. 7H2O] is approximately equal to ( at. mass of Zn = 65, S = 32, O = 16 and H = 1 )

    (a)

    33.65%

    (b)

    32.56%

    (c)

    23.65%

    (d)

    22.65%

  11. Two containers A and B of the equal volume contain 6g of each O2 and SO2 at 300K and 1atm. Then ____________

    (a)

    No. of molecules in A is less than that in B

    (b)

    No.of molecules inA is more than that inB

    (c)

    No. of molecules in A and B are same

    (d)

    none of these

  12. Consider the following statements
    (i) Empirical formula shows the actual number of atoms of different elements in one molecule of the compound.
    (ii) Ozone is a diatomic molecule.
    (iii) Gases are easily compressible.
    Which of the above statement is/are not correct?

    (a)

    (i), (ii), (iii)

    (b)

    (i) & (ii)

    (c)

    (ii) & (iii)

    (d)

    (iii) only

  13. How many moles of Hydrogen atoms are present in 1 mole of C2H6?

    (a)

    18 moles

    (b)

    6 moles

    (c)

    3 moles

    (d)

    1 mole

  14. Which of the following is the most powerful oxidising agent?

    (a)

    KMnO4

    (b)

    K2Cr2O7

    (c)

    O3

    (d)

    H2O2

  15. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by ___________

    (a)

    azimuthal quantum number

    (b)

    spin quantum number

    (c)

    magnetic quantum number

    (d)

     orbital quantum number

  16. Consider the following statements and pick the incorrect statement(s).
    1. Schrodinger wave equation is used to determine the probability of finding a electron at a given point in space.
    2. The energy of a electron at infinity is positive
    3. Angular momentum quantum number gives information regarding subshells.

    (a)

    1&3

    (b)

    only 1

    (c)

    only 2

    (d)

    1,2 & 3

  17. The electronic configuration of copper is ______

    (a)

    [Ar]4s23d9

    (b)

    [Ar]4s13d10

    (c)

    [Ar]4s03d10

    (d)

    All

  18. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then minimum uncertainty in velocity is _________

    (a)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ m } \sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } } \)

    (b)

    \( \sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } } \)

    (c)

    \(\frac { 1 }{ 2m } \sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } } \)

    (d)

    \( { \frac { h }{4\pi } } \)

  19. The atomic number of an element is 17 and its mass number is 37. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons present in the  neutral atom are __________

    (a)

    17,37,20

    (b)

    20,17,37

    (c)

    17,17,20

    (d)

    17,20,17

    (e)

    37,20,17.

  20. Isotopes have ______________

    (a)

    same number of protons

    (b)

    same number of neturons

    (c)

    different number of electrons 

    (d)

    different atomic number.

  21. Electronic configuratton of species M2+ is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 and its atomic weight is 56. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of species M is _______________

    (a)

    26

    (b)

    22

    (c)

    30

    (d)

    24

  22. The value of Planck's constant is \(6.63\times  10^{ -34 }\) Js. The velocity of light is \(3 \times  10^{ 8 }{ ms }^{ -1 }\). Which value is closet to the wavelength in nanometers of a quantum of light with frequency of \(8 \times  10^{ 15 }{ s }^{ -1 }\) ?

    (a)

    \(2\times 10^{ 25 }\)

    (b)

    \(3\times 10^{ 7 }\)

    (c)

    \(4\times 10^{ 1 }\)

    (d)

    \(5\times 10^{ -18 }\)

  23. The ratio of area covered by second orbital to the first orbital is 

    (a)

    1 : 2

    (b)

    1 : 16

    (c)

    8 : 1

    (d)

    16 : 1

  24. A near UV photon of 300 nm is absorbed by gas and then re - emitted as two photons. One photon is red with the wavelength 760 nm. Hence, wavelength of the second photon is

    (a)

    460 nm

    (b)

    1060 nm

    (c)

    496 nm

    (d)

    300 nm

  25. Absolute value of charge on the electron was determined by

    (a)

    J.J. Thomson

    (b)

    R.A. Millikan

    (c)

    M. Faraday

    (d)

    E. Rutherford

  26. Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom ?

    (a)

    \(n=3,l=2,m=-3,s=-\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

    (b)

    \(n=5,l=3,m=0,s=+\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

    (c)

    \(n=4,l=0,m=0,s=-\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

    (d)

    \(n=3,l=2,m=-2,s=-\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

  27. An electron jumps from n=3 to n=1, it gives

    (a)

    x-ray spectrum

    (b)

    emission spectrum

    (c)

    continuous spectrum

    (d)

    discontinuous spectrum

  28. Bohr's model of atom is contradicted by?

    (a)

    Pauli's exclusion principle

    (b)

    Planck quantum theory

    (c)

    Heisenberg's uncertainty principle

    (d)

    all the three

  29. If the de Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass (m) is 100 times its velocity, then its value in terms of its mass (m) and Planck's constant (h) is ___________

    (a)

    \(\frac{1}{10}\sqrt{\frac{m}{h}}\)

    (b)

    \({10}\sqrt{\frac{h}{m}}\)

    (c)

    \(\frac{1}{10}\sqrt{\frac{h}{m}}\)

    (d)

    \({10}\sqrt{\frac{m}{h}}\)

  30. The element with atomic number 57 belongs to _____

    (a)

    s-block

    (b)

    p-block

    (c)

    d-block

    (d)

    f-block

  31. Elements which generally exhibit multiple oxidation states and whose ions are usually coloured are ___________

    (a)

    metalliods

    (b)

    transition elements

    (c)

    non-metals

    (d)

    gases

  32. Find the incorrect statement.

    (a)

    Smallest atom of periodic table is He

    (b)

    p-block elements are metals, nonmetals and metalloids

    (c)

    Noble gases have 8 valence electrons except He

    (d)

    Valence electron and valency is same for group I

  33. Pick the incorrect statement about the factors affecting ionization energy

    (a)

    More is the shielding of valence electrons more is the ionization energy

    (b)

    Ionization enthalpy ∝ effective nuclear charge

    (c)

    Half filled or full filled atomic orbitals have high ionization energy

    (d)

    Larger is the atomic radii lower is ionization energy

  34. Select the correct alternate

    (a)

    Due to lanthanide contraction Zr and Hf  have almost equal size

    (b)

    Due to completion of 3d-subshell,the electronic charge increases the interelectronic repulsion hence,size increases

    (c)

    Both (a) and (b) are correct statements

    (d)

    Both (a) and (b) are incorrect statements

  35. Element Unq has atomic number of

    (a)

    102

    (b)

    103

    (c)

    104

    (d)

    112

  36. Among the following the third ionisation energy is highest for

    (a)

    magnesium

    (b)

    Boron

    (c)

    beryllium

    (d)

    aluminium

  37. The second ionization enthalpy is always higher than the first ionization enthalpy because the

    (a)

    Ion becomes more stable attaining an octet configuration

    (b)

    Electron is more tightly bound to the nucleus in an ion

    (c)

    Electron is attracted more by the core electrons

    (d)

    None of the above is correct.

  38. Which of the following elements requires the least energy to show photoelectric effect?

    (a)

    Cs

    (b)

    Na

    (c)

    Mg

    (d)

    K

  39. The number of d- electrons in Fe+2 (Z = 26) is not equal to the number of electrons in which one of the following?

    (a)

    d-electron in Fe (Z = 26)

    (b)

    p-electron in Ne (Z = 10)

    (c)

    s-electron in Mg (Z = 12)

    (d)

    p-electron in CI (Z = 17)

  40. Which of the following elements were unknown at that time of Mendeleev?

    (a)

    Na, Mg

    (b)

    Fe, CO

    (c)

    K, Cu

    (d)

    Ga, Ge

  41. Which of the following metal is not in liquid state?

    (a)

    Gallium

    (b)

    Aluminium

    (c)

    Mercury

    (d)

    Caesium

  42. Among all the elements which one has the highest value of electronegativity?

    (a)

    Chlorine

    (b)

    Bromine

    (c)

    Fluorine

    (d)

    Iodine

  43. The most electro negative element possess the electronic configuration______.

    (a)

    ns2 np2

    (b)

    ns2 np4

    (c)

    ns2 np5

    (d)

    ns2 np3

  44. Hydrogen accepts an electron to attain the inert gas configuration. In this way it resembles __________

    (a)

    chalcogens

    (b)

    halogens

    (c)

    transition metals

    (d)

    alkali metals

  45. SiH4 is an example of which of the following type of hydrides ?

    (a)

    Ionic

    (b)

    Interstitial

    (c)

    Metallic

    (d)

    Covalent

  46. H2O2 is present as ............ in alkaline medium.

    (a)

    \({ HO }_{ 2 }^{ - }ion\)

    (b)

    \({ H }_{ 3 }{ O }_{ 2 }^{ + }ion\)

    (c)

    \({ H }^{ + }ion\)

    (d)

    \({ O }_{ 2 }^{ 2- }ion\)

  47. Which statements is/are correct ?

    (a)

    Boiling point of H2O, NH3, HF are maximum in their respective group due to intermolecular H - bonding.

    (b)

    Boiling point of CH4 out of CH4, SiH4, GeH4 and SnH4 is least due to lack of H - bonding.

    (c)

    Formic acid forms dimer by H - bonding.

    (d)

    All the above are correct statements.

  48. The volume of oxygen liberated at NTP from 15 mL of 20 volume H2O2 is

    (a)

    250 mL

    (b)

    300 mL

    (c)

    150 mL

    (d)

    200 mL

  49. H2O2 used in rocket has the concentration

    (a)

    50%

    (b)

    70%

    (c)

    30%

    (d)

    90%

  50. Hydrogen gas is generally prepared by the

    (a)

    reaction of granulated zinc with dil H2SO4

    (b)

    reaction of zinc with con  H2SO4

    (c)

    reaction of pure zinc with dil  H2SO4

    (d)

    action of steam on red hot cake

  51. Tritium is obtained by

    (a)

    Nuclear reactions

    (b)

    passing steam over heated C

    (c)

    action of NaOH on AI

    (d)

    action of H2SO4 on ZN

  52. The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous solution is

    (a)

    K+ > Na+ > Rb+ >Cs+

    (b)

    Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ >Na+

    (c)

    Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+

    (d)

    Na+ > K+ >Rb+ > Cs+

  53. Which one of the following element mostly present in the sun and the stars?

    (a)

    Hydrogen

    (b)

    Lithium

    (c)

    Helium

    (d)

    Beryllium

  54. Which one of the metal is used to convert para hydrogen into ortho hydrogen?

    (a)

    Copper

    (b)

    Aluminium

    (c)

    Sodium

    (d)

    Platinum

  55. Which of the following is used in illumination of wrist watches?

    (a)

    Phosphorous

    (b)

    Radon

    (c)

    Tritium

    (d)

    Deuterium

  56. Which of the following is used as desiccants to remove moisture from organic solvents?

    (a)

    Calcium hydride

    (b)

    LiAIH4

    (c)

    Sodium boro hydride

    (d)

    Sodium hydride

  57. Which metal does not liberate H2 gas from dilute aqueous hydrochloric acid at 298 K?

    (a)

    Mg

    (b)

    Zn

    (c)

    Al

    (d)

    Cu

  58. Statement-I: The magnetic moment of parahydrogen is zero.
    Statement-II: The spins of two hydrogen atoms in para H2 molecule neutralise each other.

    (a)

    Statements-I and II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of statement-I.

    (b)

    Statements-I and II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of statement- I.

    (c)

    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is wrong.

    (d)

    Statement-I is wrong but Statement-II is correct.

  59. Why Cs and K are used as electrodes in photoelectric cells ___________

    (a)

    Due to their less ionisation energy

    (b)

    Due to high ionisation energy

    (c)

    Due to diagonal relationship

    (d)

    None of these

  60. The polarising power of Mg is almost same as ___________

    (a)

    Li

    (b)

    Na

    (c)

    K

    (d)

    Rb

  61. Gypsum is _________

    (a)

    CaSO4.H2O

    (b)

    CaSO4.1/2H2O

    (c)

    CaSO4.1/4H2O

    (d)

    CaSO4.2H2O

  62. The correct statements is / are :
    (i) BeCl2 is a covalent compound
    (ii) BeCl2 can form dimer
    (ill) BeCl2 is an electron deficient molecule
    (iv) The hybridisation of Be in BeCl2 is Sp2

    (a)

    (i) and (iii)

    (b)

    (i), (ii) and (iii)

    (c)

    (i) and (iv)

    (d)

    (ii), (iii) and (iv)

  63. The halide which can be extracted with ether is

    (a)

    LiCI

    (b)

    NaCI

    (c)

    MgCI2

    (d)

    KCI

  64. Reagent used as fixer in photography

    (a)

    AgBr

    (b)

    AgNO3

    (c)

    Na2S2O3.5H2O

    (d)

    both (a) and (b)

  65. Select the correct statement(s)

    (a)

    \({ MO }_{ 2 }contains\quad the\quad paramagnetic\quad ion{ O }_{ 2 }^{ - }\)

    (b)

    \({ O }_{ 2 }^{ - }\quad \)is stable only in the presence of large cations as K, Rb and Cs

    (c)

    \({ KO }_{ 2 }\quad is\quad paramagnetic\quad and\quad has\quad ornage\quad colour\)

    (d)

    All are format statement

  66. The highly reactive alkali metals are kept in

    (a)

    air

    (b)

    water

    (c)

    kerosene

    (d)

    All of these

  67. Identify the correct statement

    (a)

    Gypsum is obtained by heating plaster of Paris

    (b)

    Plaster of Paris can be obtained by hydration of gypsum

    (c)

    Plaster of Paris contains higher percentage of calcium than does gypsum

    (d)

    Plaster of Paris is obtained from gypsum by oxidation

  68. Dihedral angle in gaseous H2O2 is

    (a)

    180

    (b)

    90

    (c)

    111.5

    (d)

    109.5

  69. Which one of the following is the smallest atom?

    (a)

    Francium

    (b)

    Rubidium

    (c)

    Lithium

    (d)

    Sodium

  70. Consider the following statements.
    (i) Superoxides of alkali metals are diamagnetic.
    (ii) Superoxides of alkali metals are blue in colour.
    (iii) Superoxides of alkali metals are paramagnetic.
    Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

    (a)

    (i) only

    (b)

    (ii) only

    (c)

    (iii) only

    (d)

    (i) and (ii)

  71. Which one of the following is used in purification of sugar and as drying agent?

    (a)

    Ca(OH)2

    (b)

    MgSO4.7H2O

    (c)

    CaSO4.2H2O

    (d)

    CaO

  72. The partial pressure of dry gas is ____________

    (a)

    greater than that of wet gas

    (b)

    lesser than that of wet gas

    (c)

    equal to that of wet gas

    (d)

    none of these

  73. The liquefaction behaviour of temporary gases like CO2 approaches that of N2, O2 (permanent gases) as we go _______

    (a)

    below critical temperature

    (b)

    above critical temperature

    (c)

    below absolute zero

    (d)

    above absolute zero

  74. When the volume of agas is plotted versus the celsius temperature with pressure and number of moles held constant, the x-intercept is at what temperature?

    (a)

    00C

    (b)

    -2730C

    (c)

    The boiling point of the gas

    (d)

    The melting point of the gas

  75. By Avogadro's law, V = Kn If volume occupied by 1 mole of a gas at STP is 22.4 L then K is.........., if we take 0.5 mole of gas under same condition of temperature and pressure.

    (a)

    22.4 L mol-1

    (b)

    11.2 L mol-1

    (c)

    0.5 L mol-1

    (d)

    1.0 L mol-1

  76. Volume of oxygen measured at STP obtained by heating 2.16 g of HgO is (Hg = 200)

                  \(2HgO\rightarrow 2Hg+{ O }_{ 2 }\)

    (a)

    2400 mL

    (b)

    224 mL

    (c)

    112 mL

    (d)

    448 mL

  77. Phenomenon of critical constants was first given by

    (a)

    van't Hoff

    (b)

    Thomas Andrew

    (c)

    Avogadro

    (d)

    Gay Lussac

  78. For critical constants, compression factor Z is

    (a)

    1

    (b)

    > 1

    (c)

    < 1

    (d)

    0

  79. Downward force due to gravity when liquid is in a column of radius r set-up at height h is balanced by upward thrust due to surface tension. Hence,

    (a)

    \(2\pi r\gamma ={ r }^{ 2 }hdg\)

    (b)

    \(2r\gamma =hdg\)

    (c)

    \(2r\gamma =\pi hdg\)

    (d)

    \(2\gamma =rhdg\)

  80. Which of the following shows explicitly the relationship between Boyles'law and Charles' law

    (a)

    \(\frac { { P }_{ 1 } }{ { P }_{ 2 } } =\frac { { T }_{ 1 } }{ { T }_{ 2 } } \)

    (b)

    PV = K

    (c)

    \(\frac { { P }_{ 2 } }{ { P }_{ 1 } } =\frac { { V }_{ 1 } }{ { V }_{ 2 } } \)

    (d)

    \(\frac { { V }_{ 2 } }{ { V }_{ 1 } } =\frac { { P }_{ 1 } }{ { P }_{ 2 } } \times \frac { { T }_{ 2 } }{ { T }_{ 1 } } \)

  81. Equal volumes of He, O2 and SO2 are taken in a closed container. The ratio of the partial pressures of gases He, O2 and SO2 would be __________

    (a)

    1 : 2 : 8

    (b)

    8 : 16 : 1

    (c)

    1 : 4 : 16

    (d)

    16 : 2 :1

  82. For one mole of a gas, the ideal gas equation is _____________.

    (a)

    \(PV=\frac{1}{2}RT\)

    (b)

    PV = RT

    (c)

    \(PV=\frac{3}{2}RT\)

    (d)

    \(PV=\frac{5}{2}RT\)

  83. The compressibility factor for an ideal gas is ______________.

    (a)

    1.5

    (b)

    2

    (c)

    1

    (d)

    \(\propto \)

  84. Given that C(g)+ O2(g) ⟶ CO2(g)ΔHo =-akJ; 2CO(g)+O2(g) ⟶ 2CO2(g)ΔH= -bkJ; Calculate the AHo for the reaction C(g)+ 1/2O2(g) ⟶ CO(g)  ______________

    (a)

    \(\frac{b+2a}{2}\)

    (b)

    2a-b

    (c)

    \(\frac{2a-b}{2}\)

    (d)

    \(\frac{b-2a}{2}\)

  85. Which among the following is not a state function?

    (a)

    Pressure

    (b)

    Volume

    (c)

    Temperature

    (d)

    Work

  86. In a compression process, Pext is ___________

    (a)

    (Pint+ dP)

    (b)

    (Pint- dP)

    (c)

    (dP-Pint)

    (d)

    (-Pint+dP)

  87. Change in enthalpy is ___________

    (a)

    Heat absorbed at constant pressure

    (b)

    The total energy change at constant pressure and temperature

    (c)

    Equal to change in internal energy at constant volume

    (d)

    All the above

  88. The enthalpy and entropy change for a chemical reactions are -5.3 x 103 cal and 4.7 cal K-1 respectively. Predict the nature of the reaction at 298 k.

    (a)

    Non feasible

    (b)

    Reversible

    (c)

    Non-spontaneous

    (d)

    Spontaneous

  89. An engine has an efficiency of \(1 \over 6\). When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62oC, its efficiency is doubled .Temperature of the source is 

    (a)

    124oC

    (b)

    37oC

    (c)

    62oC

    (d)

    99oC

  90. The change in internal energy of a thermodynamic system which has absorbed 2 kcal of heat and done 400 J of work is

    (a)

    2kJ

    (b)

    8kJ

    (c)

    3.5kJ

    (d)

    5.5kJ

    (e)

    4.2kJ

  91. One litre of a gas \(\left(with\ \gamma={5\over3}\right)\)at NTP is compressed adiabatically to one cubic centimetre, then the resulting pressure is

    (a)

    10 Atrn

    (b)

    103 Atrn

    (c)

    105 Atrn

    (d)

    100 Atm

  92. Which of the following process is feasible at all temperatures?

    (a)

    \(\Delta\)H > 0, \(\Delta\)S > 0

    (b)

    \(\Delta\)H > 0, \(\Delta\)S < 0

    (c)

    \(\Delta\)H < 0\(\Delta\)S>0

    (d)

    \(\Delta\)H < 0, \(\Delta\)S < 0

  93. The net work done by the system _____________

    (a)

    w-P\(\Delta\)V

    (b)

    w+P\(\Delta\)V

    (c)

    -w+P\(\Delta\)V

    (d)

    -w-P\(\Delta\)V

  94. The heat absorbed at constant volume is equal to the system's change in:

    (a)

    enthalpy

    (b)

    entropy

    (c)

    internal energy

    (d)

    free energy

  95. The amount of heat evolved when 500 cm3 of 0.1 M hydrochloric add is mixed with 200 cm3 of 0.2 M sodium hydroxide solution is _________

    (a)

    -57.1 kJ

    (b)

    + 57.1 kJ

    (c)

    2.284 kJ

    (d)

    -2.284 kJ

  96. The process in which there is no exchange of heat between the system and surrounding is called ______

    (a)

    Adiabatic process

    (b)

    Isothermal process

    (c)

    Isobaric process

    (d)

    Isochoric process

  97. A gas can expand from 100 ml to 250 ml under a constant pressure of 2 atm. The work done by the gas is _________

    (a)

    -30.39 J

    (b)

    25 J

    (c)

    5 kJ

    (d)

    16 J

  98. Which one is the correct unit for entropy?

    (a)

    KJ mol

    (b)

    JK-1 mol

    (c)

    JK-1 mol-1

    (d)

    KJ mol-1

  99. Match the List-I and List-II using the correct code given below the list.

    List-I List-II
    A. Cyclic process 1. ΔU=q-PΔV
    B. Adiabatic process 2. ΔU=qv
    C. Isobaric process 3. q=-w
    D. Isochoric process 4. ΔU=w
    (a)
    A B C D
    4 2 3 1
    (b)
    A B C D
    3 4 1 2
    (c)
    A B C D
    2 1 4 3
    (d)
    A B C D
    1 3 2 4

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